An emergency response team is called to evaluate a 61-year-old male in the observation unit. Six hours earlier, the patient presented to the emergency department with a painful, non-reducible right groin mass that had been present for 10 hours. An emergency physician performed a bedside manual reduction under procedural sedation, which successfully flattened the groin bulge. However, the patient has since developed relentless, diffuse abdominal pain and two episodes of bilious emesis. Current vital signs are temperature 38.3°C (100.9°F), heart rate 124/min, blood pressure 92/58 mm Hg, and respiratory rate 22/min. Physical examination reveals an empty right inguinal canal with no overlying skin changes. The abdomen is markedly distended, with rigid musculature, diffuse rebound tenderness, and absent bowel sounds. Laboratory testing demonstrates a leukocyte count of 19,500/mm³ and a serum lactate of 4.6 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- BDiagnostic laparoscopy
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyAnswer
- DNasogastric tube insertion, intravenous antibiotics, and serial examinations
- EUrgent right inguinal exploration and tissue repair