A 64-year-old man is evaluated on the surgical ward due to a change in his clinical status. He was admitted 24 hours ago for a small bowel obstruction secondary to adhesions from a prior open sigmoidectomy. On admission, he reported intermittent, crampy abdominal pain. He was placed on nil per os (NPO) status, and treatment with intravenous fluid resuscitation and nasogastric tube decompression was initiated. Over the past 4 hours, the patient reports that his abdominal pain has worsened, becoming severe and continuous rather than colicky. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg, and pulse is 118/min. Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with focal rigidity, guarding, and marked rebound tenderness in the periumbilical region. Bowel sounds are absent. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of with 15% bands, and a serum lactate level of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyAnswer
- BComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- CAdministration of intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and clinical reassessment in 6 hours
- DAdministration of water-soluble enteral contrast via the nasogastric tube
- EReplacement of the nasogastric tube with a nasoenteric decompression tube