A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden, excruciating abdominal pain that began 90 minutes ago. She has a history of rheumatic heart disease, mitral stenosis, and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation for which she takes a beta-blocker. She admits to frequently missing her oral anticoagulant doses. On physical examination, her temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure is 142/85 mmHg, pulse is 118/min and irregularly irregular, and respirations are 18/min. Her abdomen is soft, non-distended, and non-rigid. Palpation elicits mild, diffuse tenderness without guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are decreased. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 14,500/mm³ and serum lactate of 4.2 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Computed tomography angiography of the abdomenAnswer
- BExploratory laparotomy
- CNasogastric tube decompression, intravenous fluids, and observation
- DRight upper quadrant ultrasonography
- ETransthoracic echocardiography