Following three days of progressive obstipation and bilious vomiting, a 48-year-old man arrives at the emergency department. He states that his abdominal pain, which was initially intermittent and crampy, has abruptly become constant and excruciating within the last few hours. His surgical history includes a midline laparotomy for a ruptured appendix a decade ago. Vital signs show a temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F), a pulse of 118/min, and a blood pressure of 96/60 mm Hg. The abdominal examination demonstrates widespread rigidity, diffuse rebound tenderness, and absent bowel sounds. Blood tests indicate a leukocyte count of 18,500/mm³ and an elevated serum lactate. Upright abdominal radiographs reveal prominent dilated loops of small bowel with multiple air-fluid levels and no free air. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyAnswer
- BPlacement of a nasogastric tube and intravenous fluids for conservative management
- CComputed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- DAdministration of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics and clinical observation
- EDiagnostic laparoscopy with attempted adhesiolysis