A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from an assisted living facility due to worsening nausea, intense lower abdominal pain, and an inability to pass gas for the last 36 hours. His medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a large right groin bulge that he typically pushes back in himself. However, he states he has been unable to reduce the bulge since yesterday morning. His temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), blood pressure is 92/58 mmHg, and pulse is 118/min. Physical examination demonstrates dry oral mucosa. The abdomen is distended with high-pitched, hyperactive bowel sounds. Examination of the right groin reveals a 6-cm, tense, erythematous mass extending into the scrotum that is exquisitely tender to touch. Laboratory results show a leukocyte count of 19,000/mm³ and a venous lactate level of 4.8 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Urgent open surgical exploration and hernia repairAnswer
- BManual reduction of the groin mass under conscious sedation
- CInsertion of a gastric decompression tube and serial examinations
- DCross-sectional imaging of the abdomen and pelvis
- EAdministration of intravenous antibiotics and bedside observation