An otherwise healthy -year-old female presents to the surgical assessment unit with a -hour history of intermittent, crampy abdominal pain. She reports three episodes of bilious vomiting and states she has not passed flatus or stool since the pain began. Her surgical history is significant for a total abdominal hysterectomy performed five years ago for uterine fibroids.
Vital signs include a blood pressure of mmHg, heart rate of /min, respiratory rate of /min, and temperature of C ( F). Physical examination reveals a moderately distended abdomen with high-pitched, 'tinkling' bowel sounds. The abdomen is softly to moderately tender diffusely, but there is no rigidity, guarding, or rebound tenderness.
Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of /mm and a serum lactate level of mmol/L. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast demonstrates dilated loops of small bowel measuring up to cm with multiple air-fluid levels and a discrete transition point in the mid-ileum. The distal small bowel and colon are collapsed. There is no evidence of pneumatosis intestinalis, mesenteric fat stranding, or free intraperitoneal fluid.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?
- Nasogastric tube decompression and intravenous fluidsAnswer
- BImmediate exploratory laparotomy
- CIntravenous broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
- DColonoscopy with endoscopic decompression
- EAdministration of intravenous metoclopramide