A nursing home resident is brought to the surgical evaluation unit due to a sudden decline in his clinical status. The 76-year-old male has a history of severe dementia, atrial fibrillation, and a remote open appendectomy. According to the accompanying staff, he has not had a bowel movement in three days and began vomiting dark, foul-smelling fluid this morning. Over the last hour, he has become increasingly lethargic. Vital signs show a temperature of 38.6 °C (101.5 °F), pulse of 122/min, respirations of 24/min, and blood pressure of 85/55 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals a rigid, markedly distended abdomen with diffuse rebound tenderness. Laboratory studies demonstrate a leukocyte count of and a serum lactate level of . An upright chest radiograph shows no free air under the diaphragm. A supine abdominal radiograph demonstrates significantly dilated loops of small bowel with prominent valvulae conniventes and an absence of colonic gas. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- APlacement of a nasogastric tube and nonoperative observation
- BComputed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvis
- CColonoscopic decompression and placement of a rectal tube
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyAnswer
- EInitiation of a therapeutic intravenous heparin infusion