A -year-old man with a history of ileocolonic Crohn's disease presents to the emergency department with a -hour history of severe, cramping abdominal pain and bilious vomiting. He reports not passing any flatus or stool since the pain began. Over the past hours, his pain has transitioned from colicky to constant and agonizing. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and heart rate is . Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen that is exquisitely tender to palpation in all four quadrants, with marked rigidity and rebound tenderness. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and a serum lactate of . An abdominal radiograph demonstrates multiple dilated loops of small bowel with air-fluid levels and an absence of colonic gas. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyAnswer
- BPlacement of a nasogastric tube and serial abdominal examinations
- CComputed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- DIntravenous administration of corticosteroids and biologic therapy
- EAdministration of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics and close observation