An 81-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her daughter due to the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain that began 5 hours ago. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. She routinely takes metoprolol, lisinopril, and apixaban, but she discontinued apixaban three weeks ago prior to a dental extraction. Her daughter reports that the patient initially complained of generalized, agonizing pain and was writhing in agony, but over the last hour, she has become increasingly lethargic and now lies completely motionless on the stretcher. Her temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F), blood pressure is 84/52 mm Hg, pulse is 128/min and irregularly irregular, and respirations are 24/min. Physical examination reveals a moderately distended abdomen. There is diffuse, severe pain on light palpation with board-like rigidity and involuntary guarding. Bowel sounds are absent. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 21,500/mm³ and a serum lactate level of 6.4 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Urgent exploratory laparotomyAnswer
- BMultiphasic computed tomography of the abdomen
- CIntravenous administration of unfractionated heparin
- DEndovascular catheter-directed thrombolysis
- EDiagnostic laparoscopy