A 51-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with a 24-hour history of severe abdominal pain, nausea, and obstipation. She has not passed flatus since the symptoms began. Her past medical history is significant for an open appendectomy for perforated appendicitis 15 years ago. The pain was initially intermittent and crampy but transitioned to a continuous, dull ache over the past 4 hours. Temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . On physical examination, the abdomen is moderately distended and tympanitic. There is focal tenderness to deep palpation in the right lower quadrant, but no rebound tenderness, rigidity, or guarding. Bowel sounds are high-pitched and tinkling. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and a serum lactate level of (normal: ). An intravenous contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a transition point in the distal ileum. Proximal to this point, a distinct, radially distributed, C-shaped cluster of fluid-filled small bowel loops is visualized. The mesenteric vessels supplying this segment demonstrate a converging, twisted configuration. The bowel wall of the involved segment shows normal contrast enhancement, and there is no pneumatosis intestinalis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyAnswer
- BPlacement of a nasogastric tube and serial clinical assessments
- CAdministration of oral water-soluble contrast medium
- DIntravenous administration of piperacillin-tazobactam and observation
- EColonoscopic decompression