An otherwise healthy 62-year-old male is evaluated in the emergency department for a 6-hour history of acute, intense, colicky abdominal pain accompanied by several episodes of bilious vomiting. His past medical history is notable only for an open appendectomy performed 15 years ago for a ruptured appendix. On current evaluation, his temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. The abdominal examination is significant for pronounced distention and high-pitched, hyperactive bowel sounds. Palpation elicits moderate, diffuse tenderness, though there is no evidence of guarding, rigidity, or rebound tenderness. Initial laboratory investigations reveal a leukocyte count of 9,500/mm³ and a serum lactate concentration of 1.1 mmol/L (Normal: 0.5 - 1.5 mmol/L). An abdominal and pelvic computed tomography scan with intravenous contrast reveals a distinct transition point in the distal jejunum with substantial upstream small bowel dilation. Additionally, a C-shaped, fluid-distended segment of small bowel is noted, and the corresponding mesenteric vasculature is seen tapering toward a central focal point. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Emergent surgical explorationAnswer
- BPlacement of a nasogastric tube and administration of intravenous fluids
- CAdministration of an oral water-soluble contrast agent
- DInitiation of intravenous broad-spectrum antimicrobial therapy and clinical observation
- EComputed tomography angiography of the mesenteric arteries