A 68-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital for new-onset, severe abdominal pain and distension. She was admitted four days ago for community-acquired pneumonia and has been receiving intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin. The patient has not had a bowel movement or passed flatus for the past 24 hours. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and an open total abdominal hysterectomy performed a decade ago. Temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Physical examination reveals a markedly distended abdomen with diffuse tympany. Palpation elicits severe diffuse tenderness with involuntary guarding and rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are absent. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and a serum bicarbonate of . A plain radiograph of the abdomen demonstrates multiple dilated loops of small bowel with air-fluid levels and a paucity of gas in the colon. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyAnswer
- BPlacement of a nasogastric tube and serial clinical observation
- CAbdominopelvic computed tomography with intravenous contrast
- DIntravenous administration of piperacillin-tazobactam and continuation of current care
- EDecompression with flexible sigmoidoscopy