A 54-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital due to a rapid change in her clinical status. She was admitted 24 hours ago for nausea, bilious emesis, an inability to pass flatus, and crampy abdominal pain. Her surgical history is notable for an open myomectomy five years ago. On admission, she was afebrile with normal vital signs, and an abdominal radiograph revealed multiple dilated loops of small intestine with air-fluid levels but no free intraperitoneal air. She was appropriately started on intravenous fluids, bowel rest, and nasogastric tube decompression. Over the past two hours, the patient reports that her abdominal pain has shifted from an intermittent, crampy character to a severe, constant ache. Current vital signs show a temperature of 38.8 C (101.8 F), heart rate of 118/min, blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, and respiratory rate of 22/min. Physical examination now reveals a significantly distended abdomen with localized rigidity, guarding, and rebound tenderness in the right lower quadrant. Laboratory studies demonstrate a leukocyte count of 16,500/mm³ with 15% band forms, and a serum lactate level of 3.8 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyAnswer
- BComputed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- CAdministration of a water-soluble contrast agent via the nasogastric tube
- DContinued nasogastric decompression and reassessment in 12 hours
- EInitiation of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics and serial abdominal examinations