Question

A frail $87$-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department from a nursing care facility due to a $48$-hour history of obstipation, intractable vomiting, and progressive abdominal distension. Over the past $12$ hours, she has also developed severe pain along the medial aspect of her right thigh that worsens when her hip is extended. Her medical history includes hypertension, osteoporosis, and significant unintentional weight loss over the past year. She has never had abdominal surgery. Her temperature is $38.2^\circ\text{C}$ ($100.8^\circ\text{F}$), blood pressure is $96/60\text{ mmHg}$, pulse is $115/\text{min}$, and respirations are $22/\text{min}$. On examination, the abdomen is markedly distended, tympanitic, and diffusely tender with involuntary guarding. High-pitched bowel sounds are present. Movement of the right hip, particularly internal rotation and extension, exacerbates the medial thigh pain. Laboratory results are notable for a leukocyte count of $18,200/\text{mm}^3$ and a serum lactate of $4.1\text{ mmol/L}$. An upright abdominal radiograph reveals multiple dilated loops of small bowel with air-fluid levels and an absence of colonic gas. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?