An 81-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department from a long-term care facility due to severe, unrelenting abdominal pain and recurrent bilious vomiting for the past 24 hours. She has not had a bowel movement or passed flatus for 2 days. Her medical history includes atrial fibrillation, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. She has no history of previous abdominal surgeries. Her temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), pulse is 122/min, and blood pressure is 94/56 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals a markedly distended and tympanic abdomen with diffuse guarding and rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are absent. A firm, exquisitely tender, 4-cm mass is palpable in the right groin, located inferior to the inguinal ligament and medial to the femoral artery pulsation. The skin overlying the mass is erythematous and dusky. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 19,500/mm³ and a serum lactate of 4.2 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Immediate surgical explorationAnswer
- BComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis
- CNasogastric tube decompression and serial examinations
- DBedside manual reduction of the groin mass
- ESystemic anticoagulation with intravenous heparin