A 71-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter due to a 2-day history of progressively worsening abdominal pain, severe nausea, and multiple episodes of dark green emesis. He has not passed flatus or had a bowel movement since the symptoms began. His medical history is notable for hypertension, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and a myocardial infarction 5 years ago. His temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F), blood pressure is 105/65 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination reveals a significantly distended abdomen with high-pitched, tinkling bowel sounds. Inspection of the groin reveals a 5-cm, exquisitely tender, firm, and erythematous mass in the right inguinal region that extends into the scrotum. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 16,500/mm³ and a serum lactate of 4.1 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis
- BNasogastric tube decompression and serial abdominal examinations
- Urgent operative interventionAnswer
- DAttempted manual reduction under conscious sedation
- EIntravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and clinical observation