Psychiatry

814 questions

Question 261Question →

A 32-year-old woman is evaluated in the outpatient psychiatric clinic for chronic relationship difficulties. She recently separated from her husband of three years. She states, 'I did everything he asked. I moved to a city I hated, quit my job so I could be home when he wanted, and even stopped talking to my friends because he thought they were a bad influence. I just wanted him to make the decisions so I wouldn't mess things up.' Despite her concessions, her husband filed for divorce. Since the separation, she has felt 'lost and completely helpless.' She immediately moved in with her older sister and has been pleading with her sister to help her find a new job, decide what clothes to wear, and manage her finances. When asked how she coped when her husband first mentioned divorce, she says, 'I begged him to stay and promised I would change whatever he wanted. I just panicked and clung to him tighter.' She denies ever making suicide attempts, engaging in self-injurious behavior, or experiencing sudden angry outbursts toward her husband. She has no history of substance use disorder.

Which of the following clinical features most accurately distinguishes this patient's personality pathology from borderline personality disorder?

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Answer: Appeasement and submissiveness in response to abandonment rather than rage and self-injury

Answer

Appeasement and submissiveness in response to abandonment rather than rage and self-injury
The correct answer accurately contrasts the response to abandonment in Dependent Personality Disorder (appeasement and submissiveness) with the characteristic response in Borderline Personality Disorder (rage, splitting, and impulsive self-injury). The patient in the vignette demonstrates classic DPD by reacting to her husband's departure with panic, clinging, and immediately transferring her dependency needs to her sister, while explicitly lacking anger or self-harm.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's presentation and relational patterns.
The patient exhibits extreme submissiveness, relies on others for basic decisions, and feels completely helpless when left alone.
Identifying the core behavioral pattern is necessary to establish the primary diagnosis.
2
Formulate a primary diagnosis based on DSM-5 criteria.
The clinical picture aligns with Dependent Personality Disorder (DPD), a Cluster C disorder characterized by a pervasive need to be taken care of, leading to submissive and clinging behaviors.
Establishing the correct diagnosis is required before comparing it to another disorder.
3
Compare the features of the patient's diagnosis (DPD) with Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD).
Both DPD and BPD involve a profound fear of abandonment. However, DPD reacts with clinging, appeasement, and urgently seeking another relationship for care, while BPD reacts with rage, emptiness, splitting, and often self-injurious behavior.
The question specifically asks for the clinical feature that differentiates the patient's pathology (DPD) from BPD.

Key Concept

Dependent Personality Disorder vs. Borderline Personality Disorder
Question 262Question →

A 28-year-old male veteran presents to an outpatient clinic reporting a 5-month history of severe sleep disturbances, hypervigilance, and intrusive memories of a combat engagement. He avoids crowded places and frequently scans his environment for threats. During the interview, he appears visibly tense. He also reports a recent onset of profound fatigue, constipation, and feeling cold all the time over the past 4 weeks.

His psychiatric history is significant for a severe episode of grandiosity, pressured speech, and lack of sleep that required inpatient hospitalization at age 22. He is currently taking isocarboxazid, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), prescribed two years ago for treatment-resistant depression, but he reports it is no longer effective and finds the dietary restrictions burdensome.

Vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory testing reveals:
- Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): 0.1 \muU/mL0.1 \text{ \mu U/mL} (Normal: 0.5−5.0 \muU/mL0.5 - 5.0 \text{ \mu U/mL})
- Free thyroxine (T4): 0.6 ng/dL0.6 \text{ ng/dL} (Normal: 0.9−1.7 ng/dL0.9 - 1.7 \text{ ng/dL})

The physician decides to restructure his psychiatric and medical management.

Which of the following are the most appropriate next steps in management? (Choose two correct answers)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Initiate prolonged exposure therapy; Order a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the brain to evaluate the pituitary gland

Answer

The correct interventions are to initiate prolonged exposure therapy and order a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the brain.
The appropriate management for this patient involves initiating prolonged exposure therapy (a first-line, evidence-based trauma-focused psychotherapy for PTSD) and ordering a brain MRI to evaluate his central hypothyroidism. Central hypothyroidism is confirmed by the presence of a low free T4 coupled with an inappropriately low TSH, which requires neuroimaging to rule out a structural lesion in the pituitary or hypothalamus.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the psychiatric conditions based on the clinical presentation.
The patient has Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) due to hypervigilance, flashbacks, and avoidance lasting >1 month. He also has a history of Bipolar I Disorder, indicated by a prior hospitalization for mania.
Accurate psychiatric diagnosis dictates the selection of safe and effective psychotherapeutic and pharmacological interventions.
2
Determine the appropriate treatment for the trauma-related symptoms.
Trauma-focused psychotherapy, such as prolonged exposure therapy, is the first-line treatment for PTSD and is safe to initiate concurrently.
First-line non-pharmacological therapies should be prioritized, especially given the patient's complex medication history and bipolar status.
3
Analyze the laboratory results in the context of the medical symptoms.
The patient's fatigue, cold intolerance, and constipation, combined with low free T4 and an inappropriately low TSH, indicate central (secondary) hypothyroidism.
Primary hypothyroidism features an elevated TSH. The lack of an elevated TSH response points to a pituitary or hypothalamic failure.
4
Determine the next medical step for central hypothyroidism.
An MRI of the brain/pituitary is required to evaluate for a central structural cause, such as a pituitary macroadenoma.
Central hypothyroidism warrants neuroimaging before initiating hormone replacement to rule out compressive lesions.
5
Evaluate the safety of pharmacological transitions.
Discontinuing the MAOI requires a 14-day washout before starting any serotonergic drug. Furthermore, SSRI monotherapy must be avoided due to his history of Bipolar I Disorder.
MAOI to SSRI crossover without washout causes serotonin syndrome. SSRI monotherapy in bipolar disorder precipitates manic switches.

Key Concept

Management of PTSD complicated by Bipolar I Disorder, psychopharmacological washout periods, and interpretation of central hypothyroidism.
Estimated Time:2m 30s
Question 263Question →

Match each classic clinical presentation with its most appropriate DSM-5 diagnostic category.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Panic Disorder
Social Anxiety Disorder
Specific Phobia

Matches

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Answer

Generalized Anxiety Disorder matches excessive worry lasting 6 months; Panic Disorder matches recurrent unexpected episodes of intense fear; Social Anxiety Disorder matches fear of negative evaluation; Specific Phobia matches fear of a discrete object or situation.
Each anxiety disorder is defined by its primary focus of fear or anxiety. Generalized Anxiety Disorder involves broad, free-floating worry. Panic disorder is characterized by unexpected panic attacks and the fear of having another one. Social Anxiety Disorder specifically involves the fear of negative evaluation by others. Specific phobia involves fear isolated to a specific trigger.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the core features of each clinical presentation provided in the right column.
Identified four distinct core features: chronic worry, unexpected panic attacks, fear of scrutiny, and fear of discrete triggers.
Anxiety disorders are primarily distinguished by the specific target or nature of the patient's fear and the duration of symptoms.
2
Map the distinct core features to their corresponding DSM-5 diagnostic categories.
Chronic worry maps to Generalized Anxiety Disorder, unexpected attacks to Panic Disorder, fear of scrutiny to Social Anxiety Disorder, and discrete triggers to Specific Phobia.
This directly aligns with standard psychiatric diagnostic criteria.

Key Concept

Core DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for primary anxiety disorders
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 264Question →

A 28-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic 3 months postpartum reporting an overwhelmingly sad mood, profound hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and a sensation of extreme heaviness in her arms and legs. She reports significant functional impairment, noting difficulty getting out of bed to care for her infant. To avoid common clinical pitfalls and ensure standard-of-care management, arrange the following steps in the correct chronological sequence, from the immediate diagnostic evaluation to the management of potential treatment refractoriness.

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with screening for bipolarity, followed by ruling out medical/substance etiologies, initiating SSRI monotherapy, allowing 6 to 8 weeks for an adequate trial, and finally utilizing augmentation strategies if only a partial response is achieved.
The standard of care for a new depressive presentation dictates diagnostic safety first (ruling out bipolarity and medical causes), followed by evidence-based initiation of therapy (SSRI), adherence to pharmacodynamic timelines (6-8 week trial), and finally algorithmic escalation (augmentation) for persistent or partially treated symptoms.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Rule out bipolar disorder.
Screen for history of mania/hypomania.
Patients with atypical depression features have a high rate of bipolar disorder; giving SSRI monotherapy to a bipolar patient can trigger a manic episode.
2
Rule out organic pathology.
Obtain labs and toxicology.
Conditions like postpartum thyroiditis or substance use must be excluded to confirm primary unipolar major depressive disorder.
3
Initiate primary treatment.
Prescribe an SSRI.
SSRIs are first-line for major depressive disorder, including cases with atypical or peripartum onset features.
4
Prevent premature discontinuation.
Wait 6 to 8 weeks at a therapeutic dose.
Neurobiological adaptations (e.g., receptor downregulation) take weeks; assessing efficacy too early leads to inappropriate medication changes.
5
Address treatment resistance.
Augment with an atypical antipsychotic or lithium.
If an adequate 6-8 week trial yields only a partial response, augmentation is the evidence-based next step in the stepped-care algorithm.

Key Concept

Algorithmic evaluation and stepped-care management of Major Depressive Disorder
Question 265Question →

Match each patient's clinical presentation of major depressive disorder with the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment based on their specific comorbidities and symptom profiles.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 45-year-old patient with major depressive disorder and poorly controlled diabetic peripheral neuropathy.
A 28-year-old patient with major depressive disorder who strongly wishes to avoid sexual dysfunction and weight gain.
A 78-year-old patient with major depressive disorder presenting with severe insomnia and a 10-lb weight loss over the past month.
A 60-year-old patient with major depressive disorder who was hospitalized for a myocardial infarction two weeks ago.

Matches

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Answer

The correct matches link the patient with diabetic neuropathy to Duloxetine; the patient avoiding sexual dysfunction and weight gain to Bupropion; the patient with insomnia and weight loss to Mirtazapine; and the patient with a recent myocardial infarction to Sertraline.
The correct pairings rely on matching the known side effects and secondary indications of antidepressants with specific patient needs. Duloxetine treats neuropathy; bupropion avoids sexual dysfunction; mirtazapine promotes sleep and appetite; and sertraline is safe post-myocardial infarction.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first patient's comorbidities.
The patient has diabetic peripheral neuropathy in addition to depression.
Identifying comorbid neuropathic pain guides the selection toward an SNRI like duloxetine, which treats both conditions.
2
Analyze the second patient's specific concerns regarding medication side effects.
The patient wants to avoid sexual dysfunction and weight gain.
This rules out most SSRIs and points toward bupropion, an NDRI with a favorable profile regarding sexual function and weight.
3
Analyze the third patient's specific depressive symptoms.
The patient suffers from severe insomnia and significant weight loss.
This points toward mirtazapine, which is known for its sedating and appetite-stimulating side effects.
4
Analyze the fourth patient's recent medical history.
The patient had a myocardial infarction two weeks ago.
This requires a cardiac-safe antidepressant. Sertraline is the SSRI of choice for patients with ischemic heart disease.

Key Concept

Selecting the most appropriate antidepressant based on side-effect profiles and patient comorbidities.
Question 266Question →

A 45-year-old night-shift security guard is evaluated at a primary care clinic for a routine employment physical. The patient reports that he lives entirely alone and spends his off-hours building intricate model ships. When the physician asks about his social support system, the patient states that he has no close friends and prefers it that way, noting that interacting with others is exhausting and uninteresting to him. He expresses no desire for romantic or sexual relationships. During the interview, he appears indifferent to the physician's attempts to build rapport and displays a flattened, detached affect. He denies experiencing any hallucinations, paranoia, or periods of depressed mood. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

Answer

The most likely diagnosis is schizoid personality disorder.
The correct diagnosis is schizoid personality disorder. This condition is distinguished by a pervasive, lifelong pattern of voluntary social detachment and a severely restricted range of emotional expression in interpersonal settings. Patients typically choose solitary jobs (like night-shift security), engage in solitary hobbies, show little to no interest in sexual or romantic relationships, and appear indifferent to the approval or criticism of others. Crucially, their isolation is ego-syntonic; they do not secretly wish for friends but genuinely prefer being alone.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's interpersonal preferences and social history.
The patient actively chooses to be alone, has no close friends, lacks interest in romantic relationships, and is completely content with his isolation.
Determining whether social isolation is voluntary (ego-syntonic) or driven by fear/anxiety (ego-dystonic) is the first step in differentiating personality disorders.
2
Evaluate the patient's affect and behavior during the clinical encounter.
The patient exhibits emotional coldness, a flattened affect, and indifference to praise or rapport-building.
Restricted emotional expression is a hallmark of Cluster A personality disorders, specifically schizoid.
3
Rule out psychotic disorders and other closely related personality disorders.
The absence of hallucinations, delusions, odd beliefs, and magical thinking rules out schizophrenia and schizotypal personality disorder.
Diagnostic criteria require distinguishing pervasive personality traits from acute psychotic illnesses or more eccentric Cluster A disorders.

Key Concept

Schizoid personality disorder is a Cluster A personality disorder characterized by a lifelong pattern of voluntary social withdrawal, restricted emotional expression, and a profound lack of desire for intimacy.
Question 267Question →

An emergency medical team brings a 20-year-old female university student to the hospital after she fainted during a lecture. Her friends report she has been severely restricting her food intake and exercising excessively for the past 8 months. On arrival, she is lethargic but arousable. Her body mass index is calculated at 13.0 kg/m213.0\text{ kg/m}^2. Vital signs indicate profound bradycardia (38 /min38\text{ /min}) and hypotension (78/48 mm Hg78/48\text{ mm Hg}). Arrange the following interventions in the most appropriate chronological sequence for managing this patient's condition, progressing from immediate acute care to definitive long-term therapy.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first obtain an ECG and metabolic panel, followed by inpatient medical admission for caloric repletion, then initiation of cognitive-behavioral therapy, and finally transitioning to outpatient multidisciplinary care.
The management of severe anorexia nervosa follows a strict hierarchy of clinical needs. Immediate survival requires identifying acute cardiopulmonary and metabolic crises (via ECG and metabolic panel). Once the initial emergency assessment is complete, the patient must be admitted to an inpatient medical unit for cautious nutritional rehabilitation and continuous monitoring to prevent refeeding syndrome. Only after basic medical stability and some cognitive restoration are achieved can the patient effectively participate in core psychiatric treatments like cognitive-behavioral therapy. Finally, long-term maintenance is managed in an outpatient multidisciplinary setting to sustain recovery.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the immediate life-threatening risks associated with severe malnutrition, bradycardia, and hypotension.
Prioritize acute medical assessment with an ECG and laboratory evaluation.
Patients with severe anorexia nervosa are at high risk for fatal cardiac arrhythmias and severe electrolyte derangements which must be identified immediately.
2
Determine the appropriate setting for initial treatment after acute assessment.
Admit the patient to an inpatient medical unit for controlled refeeding and telemetry.
Hemodynamic instability and very low BMI necessitate medical admission to monitor for and prevent refeeding syndrome during initial caloric replenishment.
3
Determine the optimal timing for core psychological interventions.
Initiate cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) after medical stability is achieved.
Severely malnourished patients often lack the cognitive capacity to engage in intensive psychotherapy until basic nutritional rehabilitation has commenced.
4
Plan for longitudinal care and relapse prevention.
Transition the patient to an outpatient multidisciplinary eating disorder program.
Eating disorders are chronic conditions requiring long-term psychiatric, nutritional, and medical follow-up to maintain recovery.

Key Concept

The management of severe anorexia nervosa prioritizes immediate assessment of life-threatening cardiac and metabolic complications, followed by inpatient medical stabilization to prevent refeeding syndrome, before advancing to definitive psychotherapy and long-term outpatient care.
Question 268Question →

An established patient presents to the outpatient psychiatry clinic accompanied by her sister. The 29-year-old woman reports feeling profoundly 'empty' and exhausted for the past three weeks. During this time, she has struggled with significant hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and pervasive feelings of guilt. Her sister notes that two years prior, the patient experienced a highly uncharacteristic 10-day period during which she was exceptionally 'wired,' slept merely two hours per night, spoke incessantly, and had grandiose delusions of being a secret government agent. She was subsequently placed on phenelzine for presumed unipolar depression by a different provider, but she independently stopped taking this medication 3 days ago due to a lack of perceived efficacy. Current laboratory results, including a complete thyroid panel (TSH and free T4), are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?

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Answer: Initiate lithium

Answer

Initiate lithium
The correct answer is to initiate lithium. This patient presents with a current depressive episode (marked by low mood, hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and excessive guilt) and a documented history of a distinct 10-day episode characterized by a decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and grandiose delusions. This history firmly meets the criteria for a manic episode, establishing the diagnosis of bipolar I disorder. Therefore, the patient is currently experiencing bipolar depression. First-line pharmacologic treatments for bipolar depression include lithium, lurasidone, or quetiapine. Because the patient recently discontinued phenelzine (an MAOI) just 3 days ago, extreme care must be taken to avoid dangerous drug interactions. However, lithium does not act as a serotonergic reuptake inhibitor, does not cause serotonin syndrome, and can therefore be safely initiated without waiting for a 14-day washout period.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the primary psychiatric condition based on the patient's history.
The patient has a history of a 10-day manic episode (decreased sleep, rapid speech, impulsivity, grandiose delusions) and is currently presenting with depression, which confirms a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder.
Accurate diagnosis is strictly required to select the appropriate pharmacotherapy and avoid contraindicated medications, such as antidepressant monotherapy.
2
Evaluate the current medication history for potential drug interactions.
The patient discontinued phenelzine (an MAOI) 3 days ago. A 14-day washout period is mandatory before starting any serotonergic agents to prevent serotonin syndrome.
Irreversible MAOIs continue to inhibit the monoamine oxidase enzyme for up to two weeks after they are discontinued.
3
Select a safe and effective first-line medication for bipolar depression.
Lithium is selected because it is a proven first-line treatment for bipolar depression and does not interact with MAOIs to cause serotonin syndrome.
Lithium stabilizes mood without the risk of precipitating mania, unlike SSRIs, and can be started immediately without a washout period.

Key Concept

Patients with bipolar I depression require mood-stabilizing medications (such as lithium) rather than antidepressant monotherapy to avoid precipitating mania. Furthermore, a strict 14-day washout is critical when transitioning from an MAOI to any serotonergic drug, but not for lithium.
Question 269Question →

A 38-year-old freelance artist is accompanied to a primary care appointment by her older sister. The patient is wearing heavily layered, mismatched clothing adorned with various metallic charms that she claims "deflect negative electromagnetic frequencies." During the interview, she speaks in a circumstantial and overly abstract manner, describing her health as being "out of alignment with the lunar cycles." She avoids eye contact, appearing highly uncomfortable, and mentions that she rarely leaves her apartment because she is overwhelmed by the "intense auras" of other people. Her sister expresses frustration, stating that this behavior has persisted since the patient's early twenties, and requests that the physician "prescribe medication to stop these delusions." The patient denies hearing voices or believing that others are trying to harm her. She is fully oriented and correctly answers questions about her medical history. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the physician?

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Answer: Establish a supportive therapeutic alliance and offer interventions for her social anxiety without aggressively challenging her esoteric beliefs

Answer

Establish a supportive therapeutic alliance and offer interventions for her social anxiety without aggressively challenging her esoteric beliefs.
The correct answer is to establish a supportive therapeutic alliance and offer interventions for her social anxiety without aggressively challenging her esoteric beliefs. This patient's presentation—characterized by magical thinking (believing charms deflect frequencies), odd appearance, circumstantial speech, and intense social anxiety stemming from interpersonal discomfort—is highly consistent with Schizotypal Personality Disorder (STPD). STPD is a Cluster A personality disorder defined by a pervasive pattern of social deficits, cognitive or perceptual distortions, and eccentricities beginning by early adulthood. Because these traits are deeply ingrained, directly confronting or attempting to 'cure' the magical thinking is typically counterproductive and damages the physician-patient relationship. Instead, the most appropriate management involves building a non-judgmental alliance. Furthermore, patients with STPD often experience significant distress from comorbid social anxiety; therefore, targeted interventions (such as Cognitive Behavioral Therapy) for the anxiety are clinically appropriate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's symptom profile and timeline.
The patient exhibits magical thinking, odd speech, eccentric appearance, and severe social anxiety persisting for over a decade, without evidence of frank delusions or hallucinations.
To accurately differentiate a chronic personality structure from an acute psychotic or affective disorder.
2
Identify the most likely primary diagnosis.
The presentation clearly aligns with Schizotypal Personality Disorder (Cluster A).
The long-standing, pervasive pattern of eccentricities and social anxiety caused by interpersonal discomfort meets the DSM-5 criteria for this personality disorder.
3
Determine the best management strategy and assess ethical obligations regarding capacity and confidentiality.
The physician should build a supportive alliance, treat the distressing social anxiety, respect her autonomy, and avoid aggressively confronting her ingrained magical thinking.
Patients with personality disorders retain medical decision-making capacity unless specifically impaired. Directly confronting ego-syntonic magical thinking is counterproductive, whereas treating comorbid anxiety builds trust and improves quality of life.

Key Concept

Diagnosis and clinical management of Schizotypal Personality Disorder, including differentiation from psychotic disorders and evaluation of medical capacity.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 270Question →

A 38-year-old man is hospitalized for intravenous antibiotic therapy for severe lower extremity cellulitis. Over the past 48 hours, the nursing staff reports escalating behavioral difficulties. The patient exhibits rapid, unpredictable shifts in affect, ranging from profound tearfulness to intense, sarcastic outbursts. He recently told the attending physician, "You are the only competent doctor in this hospital; the morning nurses are maliciously ignoring my needs." Following a minor delay in receiving his morning meal tray, he became extremely distressed and reported briefly hearing a voice telling him he is "worthless." This perceptual disturbance completely resolved within two hours after a supportive conversation with the clinical social worker. His medical record indicates a history of recurrent impulsive medication overdoses, chronic feelings of emptiness, and tumultuous interpersonal relationships. His home medications include phenelzine for a history of treatment-resistant depression. The patient is currently demanding that the team "do something to fix my severe depression right now."

Which 3 of the following interventions are appropriate components of this patient's comprehensive management plan during this admission?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Establish a unified treatment team approach with explicitly defined contingencies for disruptive behavior; Validate the patient's emotional distress while adhering strictly to professional boundaries and care protocols; Schedule frequent, brief, planned check-ins by the primary nurse rather than responding exclusively to acute distress calls

Answer

The most appropriate interventions are establishing a unified treatment team approach, validating the patient's emotional distress while maintaining strict boundaries, and scheduling frequent, brief, planned check-ins by the primary nurse.
The patient's presentation of affective instability, chronic emptiness, recurrent impulsive overdoses, splitting (idealizing the attending, devaluing the nurses), and transient stress-related psychotic symptoms (briefly hearing a voice when stressed) is highly characteristic of borderline personality disorder (BPD). In a medical setting, patients with BPD can cause significant staff disruption through splitting and escalating demands. Evidence-based management involves establishing a unified team approach with clear, consistent limits to prevent manipulation and staff division. Staff should validate the patient's distress to build rapport while maintaining strict professional boundaries to prevent transgressions. Additionally, scheduling frequent, brief, routine check-ins provides a predictable structure that reduces the patient's fear of abandonment and minimizes the need to act out or escalate behaviors to receive attention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the underlying psychiatric diagnosis based on the clinical vignette.
The patient has Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD), evidenced by splitting, affective instability, feelings of emptiness, impulsivity, and transient stress-related psychotic symptoms.
Accurate diagnosis is required to understand the mechanism behind the patient's chaotic behavior on the medical floor.
2
Recognize the specific behavioral challenges this patient presents in the medical setting.
The patient is utilizing splitting (idealizing the physician, devaluing nurses) and escalating behaviors due to perceived abandonment (delayed meal tray).
Identifying splitting and abandonment fears allows the team to implement targeted non-pharmacological interventions.
3
Determine appropriate behavioral management strategies for BPD.
A unified team approach, clear professional boundaries, distress validation, and proactively scheduled check-ins are recommended to prevent manipulation and staff division.
These interventions mitigate the core psychopathology of BPD and maintain a functioning therapeutic environment.
4
Evaluate the proposed pharmacological interventions against the patient's current medication list and the diagnostic timeline.
SSRIs (fluoxetine, citalopram) are contraindicated due to concurrent MAOI (phenelzine) use. The psychotic symptoms do not meet the >1 day criteria for brief psychotic disorder.
Prevents dangerous drug interactions (Serotonin Syndrome) and avoids misdiagnosis of stress-related transient psychosis.

Key Concept

Management of Borderline Personality Disorder in a Medical Setting
Question 271Question →

A 34-year-old man comes to the clinic seeking a second opinion regarding his "chronic fatigue and workplace stress." He brings a 5-page typed document detailing his symptoms, previous doctors' visits, and a list of medical literature he has reviewed. He states that he is constantly exhausted because he works 80 hours a week as a software developer. He explains, "I have to do everything myself because my colleagues are incompetent and careless. If I delegate, the code will be messy, and I refuse to release anything less than perfect." Because of this rigid standard, he frequently misses project deadlines, which recently led to a formal reprimand from his manager. The patient expresses anger at his manager's "inability to appreciate true quality." He denies any repetitive rituals or intrusive thoughts that cause him distress. He reports no periods of elevated mood, impulsivity, or decreased need for sleep. He has no close friends because he finds socializing to be "an inefficient use of time." Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

Answer

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
This patient exhibits classic features of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). OCPD is a Cluster C personality disorder defined by a pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. Key features demonstrated by this patient include perfectionism that interferes with task completion (missing deadlines because the code must be perfect), an excessive devotion to work and productivity to the exclusion of leisure activities and friendships, and a reluctance to delegate tasks unless others submit exactly to his way of doing things. Crucially, his worldview is ego-syntonic; he does not see his perfectionism as a problem, but rather views others as 'incompetent'.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the core behavioral patterns described in the vignette.
The patient demonstrates extreme perfectionism, rigidity, reluctance to delegate, and excessive devotion to work to the point of missing deadlines.
Identifying the primary driving force behind the patient's impairment is necessary for an accurate psychiatric diagnosis.
2
Determine if the patient's symptoms are ego-syntonic or ego-dystonic.
The patient feels his behavior is justified and superior (ego-syntonic), and explicitly denies distressful intrusive thoughts or rituals.
This critically differentiates a personality disorder from an anxiety or obsessive-compulsive disorder.
3
Differentiate from other personality disorders with overlapping features.
The social isolation is driven by work devotion, not a lack of desire (ruling out Schizoid). The devaluation of others is based on their perceived incompetence regarding tasks, not a primary need for personal admiration (ruling out Narcissistic).
Cluster A, B, and C personality disorders can share superficial traits (e.g., social isolation, arrogance) but have entirely different underlying psychological motivations.

Key Concept

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) is characterized by a pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental/interpersonal control at the expense of flexibility, openness, and efficiency.
Question 272Question →

A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic with her husband due to a 4-week history of profound sadness, frequent crying spells, and a feeling of being "completely overwhelmed." She delivered her first child 2 months ago via an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. She states that she sleeps heavily when the infant sleeps but still feels exhausted throughout the day. She has a poor appetite and expresses immense guilt over being a "terrible mother." She denies any thoughts of harming herself or the infant. Her medical history is unremarkable. Vital signs are normal. Laboratory testing shows a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 4.2μU/mL4.2 \mu U/mL (normal: 0.5−5.0μU/mL0.5-5.0 \mu U/mL) and a free T4 of 1.1ng/dL1.1 ng/dL (normal: 0.8−2.8ng/dL0.8-2.8 ng/dL). During the interview, her husband mentions that during her second trimester of pregnancy, she experienced a 3-week period where she "barely slept for days," rapidly renovated their entire house single-handedly, and spoke so quickly that he struggled to follow her train of thought. He had assumed this was a severe case of "pregnancy nesting." Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacological management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate quetiapine

Answer

Initiate quetiapine
This patient is currently experiencing a major depressive episode. However, the collateral history from her husband regarding a 3-week period during her pregnancy characterized by a decreased need for sleep, increased goal-directed activity (renovating the house), and pressured speech is diagnostic of a past manic episode. Therefore, her correct diagnosis is Bipolar I Disorder, current episode depressed. First-line pharmacological treatments for bipolar depression include quetiapine, lurasidone, and cariprazine. Quetiapine is highly effective for bipolar depression and is also one of the preferred agents during the postpartum and lactation period due to its minimal excretion into breast milk.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the current psychiatric presentation.
The patient is currently experiencing a major depressive episode with postpartum onset, characterized by sadness, crying spells, guilt, and fatigue.
Establishing the current mood state is the first step in psychiatric evaluation.
2
Evaluate the patient's psychiatric history provided by the husband.
The history of a 3-week period of decreased need for sleep, increased goal-directed activity, and pressured speech meets the criteria for a manic episode.
Collateral history is essential to differentiate unipolar major depressive disorder from bipolar disorder.
3
Synthesize the findings to establish a definitive diagnosis.
A current major depressive episode combined with a past manic episode yields a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder, current episode depressed.
The presence of even one manic episode in a patient's lifetime precludes the diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder.
4
Select the most appropriate evidence-based pharmacotherapy.
Quetiapine is selected as it is a first-line agent for bipolar depression.
Antidepressant monotherapy must be avoided in bipolar disorder to prevent mood destabilization, and quetiapine provides effective treatment while being acceptable during the postpartum/lactation period.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with depressive episodes must be carefully screened for a history of mania or hypomania to distinguish unipolar depression from bipolar depression; antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated in bipolar disorder due to the risk of precipitating a manic switch.
Question 273Question →

A 72-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her daughter due to a 1-year history of progressive memory loss, misplacing items, and getting lost in familiar neighborhoods. Arrange the following steps in the most appropriate chronological order for the initial diagnostic evaluation of this patient's progressive cognitive decline.

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Answer

The diagnostic workup for cognitive decline sequentially involves: history and physical examination, objective cognitive screening, laboratory testing for reversible causes, and finally structural neuroimaging.
The standard approach to evaluating a patient with progressive cognitive decline follows a stepwise sequence. It begins with a comprehensive history and physical exam (including collateral history) to define the clinical syndrome. Next, an objective cognitive screening tool (e.g., MoCA, MMSE) is administered to quantify the impairment. Once impairment is confirmed, laboratory tests (TSH, Vitamin B12, CMP, CBC) are drawn to rule out reversible metabolic causes. Finally, structural neuroimaging (non-contrast CT or MRI) is obtained to rule out structural lesions (such as subdural hematoma, tumors, or normal pressure hydrocephalus) and support specific neurodegenerative diagnoses.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's presentation as suspected major neurocognitive disorder (dementia).
The patient has a 1-year history of progressive functional impairment and memory loss.
Recognizing the broad clinical syndrome guides the standard algorithmic workup.
2
Place the history and physical examination as the first action.
History and physical is ranked first.
Patient assessment universally begins with direct clinical evaluation and collateral information gathering.
3
Determine the next step to confirm the suspected diagnosis.
Objective cognitive screening is ranked second.
Subjective complaints must be verified and quantified using standardized tools like the MMSE or MoCA.
4
Sequence the diagnostic tests to rule out secondary causes.
Laboratory testing is ranked third, followed by neuroimaging as the final step in this initial workup list.
Blood work is a minimally invasive way to rapidly identify reversible metabolic causes (e.g., hypothyroidism), while structural neuroimaging completes the standard diagnostic criteria for major neurocognitive disorders by ruling out space-occupying lesions or vascular disease.

Key Concept

The standard diagnostic sequence for evaluating progressive cognitive decline.
Question 274Question →

A 22-year-old man visits a community health clinic reporting a 3-week period of severely depressed mood, hypersomnia, and intense feelings of worthlessness. During the psychiatric history, the physician learns that one year ago, the patient experienced a distinct 10-day period where he felt 'invincible,' required only 3 hours of sleep per night to feel fully rested, and engaged in impulsive, high-risk financial investments. He currently takes no medications and has no other medical conditions. Which of the following represent appropriate initial management steps for this patient's current condition? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate quetiapine monotherapy; Initiate lurasidone monotherapy

Answer

The appropriate initial management steps include initiating quetiapine monotherapy or initiating lurasidone monotherapy.
The patient is experiencing an acute major depressive episode and has a history of a distinct manic episode, establishing a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder. For acute bipolar depression, first-line FDA-approved monotherapies include second-generation antipsychotics such as quetiapine and lurasidone. These agents effectively target depressive symptoms without significantly increasing the risk of inducing a manic switch.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the nature of the current episode.
The patient has had 3 weeks of severely depressed mood, hypersomnia, and worthlessness, indicating a Major Depressive Episode.
Establishing the current affective state is necessary to guide acute management.
2
Analyze the past psychiatric history.
The patient experienced a 10-day period of feeling invincible, decreased need for sleep, and impulsivity, which meets the criteria for a Manic Episode.
A history of mania fundamentally changes the diagnosis and treatment approach from unipolar depression.
3
Establish the overarching diagnosis.
The combination of a past manic episode and a current major depressive episode yields a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder, current episode depressed.
Correct diagnosis is critical to avoid prescribing contraindicated medications.
4
Select appropriate pharmacotherapy for bipolar depression.
Quetiapine and lurasidone are selected because they are FDA-approved first-line monotherapies for bipolar depression.
These atypical antipsychotics safely treat depression in bipolar patients without carrying the high risk of manic switching associated with traditional antidepressants.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with depressive symptoms must be screened for a history of mania; if bipolar depression is diagnosed, it should be treated with first-line agents like quetiapine or lurasidone, while avoiding antidepressant monotherapy to prevent a manic switch.
Question 275Question →

A 19-year-old female college student is evaluated at the student health center due to significant weight loss and academic decline. For the past eight months, she has experienced overwhelming anxiety when eating in the campus dining hall, constantly fearing that other students are intensely watching and negatively judging her table manners. To avoid this distress, she has been skipping meals, resulting in a 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss. She denies any fear of gaining weight or distorted body image. She also strictly avoids raising her hand or speaking in seminars. Her medical history is significant for a recent methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA) skin abscess, for which she was started on oral linezolid three days ago. Her psychiatric history includes an episode at age 17 characterized by severe depression, which was followed by a distinct two-week period of euphoric mood, decreased need for sleep, and hypersexuality.

Laboratory studies reveal:
TestResultReference Range
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)0.2 µU/mL0.5 - 5.0 µU/mL
Free thyroxine (T4)0.5 ng/dL0.9 - 1.7 ng/dL

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Refer the patient for cognitive-behavioral therapy focusing on social exposure

Answer

Refer the patient for cognitive-behavioral therapy focusing on social exposure
The patient exhibits core features of Social Anxiety Disorder (SAD), characterized by an excessive fear of scrutiny and negative evaluation in social or performance situations (e.g., eating in the dining hall, speaking in class). Her symptoms have led to severe avoidance behavior and functional impairment (significant weight loss, academic decline). She lacks the body image distortion required for an anorexia nervosa diagnosis. While selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) are both first-line treatments for SAD, this patient's complex history makes pharmacotherapy hazardous. CBT with exposure techniques is the safest and most appropriate immediate intervention, effectively bypassing the risks of drug-drug interactions and mood destabilization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the psychiatric presentation and establish the primary diagnosis.
The patient has marked fear of scrutiny in social situations (eating in public, speaking in class) causing functional impairment (weight loss, academic decline) lasting over 6 months, without body image distortion. This confirms Social Anxiety Disorder (SAD).
Accurate diagnosis is required before selecting an intervention, distinguishing SAD from eating disorders or psychotic disorders.
2
Evaluate the patient's medical and psychiatric comorbidities for contraindications to standard pharmacotherapy.
The patient is taking linezolid (a reversible MAOI) and has a clear history of a manic/hypomanic episode (euphoria, decreased sleep, hypersexuality), indicating Bipolar Disorder.
Standard first-line pharmacotherapy for SAD includes SSRIs, but these comorbidities make SSRI use highly dangerous.
3
Select the safest first-line treatment option.
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is chosen.
CBT is a first-line treatment for SAD that avoids the risk of serotonin syndrome (from linezolid) and manic switching (from bipolar disorder).

Key Concept

First-line management of Social Anxiety Disorder in medically and psychiatrically complex patients involves Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy to avoid dangerous pharmacologic interactions and mood destabilization.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 276Question →

A 21-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his friends due to severe agitation and confusion. His friends report that they were at an electronic music festival when he suddenly became profusely sweaty, disoriented, and collapsed. His medical history is significant for major depressive disorder, for which he takes fluoxetine daily. His temperature is 39.4°C (102.9°F), blood pressure is 170/105 mm Hg, pulse is 128/min, and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination shows diffuse diaphoresis, bilateral mydriasis, and tremors. Neurologic examination reveals prominent hyperreflexia and sustained clonus in the lower extremities. Which of the following illicit substances did this patient most likely consume?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine

Answer

3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine
The correct answer is 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA). This patient is presenting with classic signs of serotonin syndrome: autonomic hyperactivity (hyperthermia, tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis), altered mental status (agitation, confusion), and neuromuscular irritability (hyperreflexia, sustained clonus). MDMA, also known as Ecstasy or Molly, is a common drug of abuse at electronic music festivals and clubs. It exerts its clinical effects primarily by causing massive release of serotonin into the synaptic cleft. When MDMA is used by a patient who is already taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) like fluoxetine, the synergistic increase in serotonergic activity can precipitate life-threatening serotonin syndrome.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's vital signs and physical examination findings.
The patient has hyperthermia, hypertension, tachycardia, diaphoresis, mydriasis, hyperreflexia, and clonus.
Identifying the toxidrome is the first step in diagnosing substance intoxication.
2
Review the patient's medical history and current medications.
The patient is taking fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).
Concurrent medications can interact with illicit substances to produce life-threatening toxidromes.
3
Synthesize the findings to identify the specific syndrome.
The combination of autonomic hyperactivity, mental status changes, and prominent neuromuscular irritability (hyperreflexia, clonus) in a patient on an SSRI is highly specific for serotonin syndrome.
Serotonin syndrome occurs when multiple serotonergic agents are combined.
4
Determine which illicit substance most likely precipitated this syndrome.
3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) is a synthetic amphetamine that stimulates massive serotonin release, which can trigger serotonin syndrome when combined with an SSRI.
Matching the substance's mechanism of action to the clinical presentation confirms the diagnosis.

Key Concept

Serotonin syndrome can be precipitated by the concomitant use of an SSRI and MDMA (Ecstasy), presenting with autonomic hyperactivity, altered mental status, and neuromuscular irritability (hyperreflexia, clonus).
Question 277Question →

A 31-year-old man presents to the psychiatry clinic deeply distressed. For the past 3 weeks, since the birth of his daughter, he has been experiencing recurrent, intrusive images of himself dropping the infant down the stairs. He states, "I love her more than anything and would never hurt her, but these terrifying thoughts keep popping into my head." To neutralize his anxiety, he mentally recites the alphabet backward exactly three times every time the image occurs. This cycle repeats dozens of times a day. He has refused to hold the baby, placing significant strain on his marriage.

His medical history is notable for congenital long QT syndrome. His psychiatric history includes a severe manic episode with psychotic features at age 24, for which he was hospitalized and successfully treated. However, he discontinued all psychiatric medications two years ago and has been euthymic since. An electrocardiogram today shows a QTc interval of 490 ms490 \text{ ms}.

Which of the following are the most appropriate steps in the clinical management of this patient? (Select exactly 2)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Provide psychoeducation that his thoughts do not reflect an intent to harm the infant; Initiate exposure and response prevention (ERP) therapy

Answer

The most appropriate steps are to provide psychoeducation that his thoughts do not reflect true intent to harm, and to initiate exposure and response prevention (ERP) therapy.
This patient presents with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) characterized by ego-dystonic harm obsessions and mental compulsions. First-line treatments for OCD include serotonergic antidepressants and cognitive-behavioral therapy, specifically exposure and response prevention (ERP). However, this patient's history of Bipolar I disorder makes selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) monotherapy strictly contraindicated due to the high risk of precipitating a manic episode. Furthermore, his congenital long QT syndrome contraindicates the use of clomipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant known to prolong the QTc interval. Therefore, ERP therapy is the safest and most appropriate definitive intervention. Additionally, providing psychoeducation is a critical initial management step; patients with postpartum harm obsessions are often terrified they will act on their thoughts, and clinical reassurance that these ego-dystonic thoughts do not equate to true intent is highly therapeutic.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric diagnosis based on the clinical presentation.
The patient exhibits ego-dystonic intrusive thoughts of harming his child (obsessions) and engages in mental rituals to neutralize anxiety (compulsions). The diagnosis is Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) with postpartum onset.
Accurate diagnosis is required to differentiate OCD from postpartum psychosis or other psychotic disorders, which dictate entirely different management.
2
Evaluate the patient's medical and psychiatric history for pharmacological contraindications.
The patient has unmedicated Bipolar I disorder (history of severe mania) and congenital long QT syndrome (QTc=490 msQTc = 490 \text{ ms}).
Comorbidities severely restrict the use of standard first-line medications for OCD.
3
Select the safest and most effective initial treatment modalities.
Exposure and response prevention (ERP) therapy is selected as the safest definitive treatment. Psychoeducation is provided immediately to alleviate extreme distress.
SSRI monotherapy risks precipitating mania in Bipolar I. Clomipramine risks fatal arrhythmias in long QT syndrome. Breaking confidentiality is inappropriate because harm obsessions carry no true intent.

Key Concept

Management of complex OCD requires balancing evidence-based interventions against comorbid contraindications, specifically avoiding SSRI monotherapy in unmedicated Bipolar I disorder and avoiding QTc-prolonging agents in congenital long QT syndrome. Furthermore, ego-dystonic harm obsessions do not warrant breaking patient confidentiality.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 278Question →

A 2828-year-old male architect is brought to the outpatient psychiatric clinic by his husband. The patient reports a 44-week history of feeling "profoundly empty," sleeping 1414 hours a day, gaining 77 kg (1515 lbs), and experiencing an inability to concentrate on his design projects. His husband notes that 33 years ago, the patient had a distinct 22-week period where he slept only 22 hours a night, maxed out several credit cards investing in cryptocurrency, and firmly believed he was communicating telepathically with extraterrestrials. That episode resulted in a 1010-day psychiatric hospitalization. The patient's only current medication is daily omeprazole. His vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. Which of the following statements regarding the appropriate pharmacological management for this patient are correct? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Lurasidone monotherapy is an appropriate first-line pharmacological intervention for his current mood episode.; If lithium therapy is planned, baseline evaluation must include serum creatinine, urinalysis, and thyroid-stimulating hormone levels.

Answer

The correct statements are that lurasidone monotherapy is an appropriate first-line treatment for his current mood episode, and that baseline renal and thyroid function tests are required if lithium is planned.
The patient's clinical picture is classic for Bipolar I disorder, currently in a major depressive episode. First-line treatments for bipolar depression include lurasidone, quetiapine, cariprazine, or the olanzapine-fluoxetine combination. Therefore, initiating lurasidone is correct. Additionally, if the physician chooses to start lithium for mood stabilization, a comprehensive baseline medical evaluation is mandatory. Lithium is cleared entirely by the kidneys and can cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus and chronic tubulointerstitial nephropathy; it also inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis. Thus, baseline serum creatinine, urinalysis, and TSH are strictly required.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's history to establish the primary diagnosis.
The patient has Bipolar I disorder, currently in a severe major depressive episode.
The history of a distinct period of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, impulsivity, and grandiose delusions resulting in hospitalization confirms a past manic episode. This makes the diagnosis Bipolar I disorder, regardless of the current depressive presentation.
2
Determine the appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy for acute bipolar depression.
Atypical antipsychotics such as lurasidone, quetiapine, or a combination of olanzapine and fluoxetine are indicated.
These medications have proven efficacy in treating bipolar depression without carrying a high risk of inducing a manic switch, unlike standard antidepressant monotherapy.
3
Identify the required pre-treatment workup for mood stabilizers and recognize pharmacological contraindications.
Lithium requires baseline renal and thyroid panels. SSRI monotherapy and combinations of serotonergic agents (SSRI + MAOI) are contraindicated.
Lithium commonly affects the kidneys and thyroid gland. Standard antidepressants without a mood stabilizer risk destabilizing bipolar disorder, and combining serotonergic drugs risks serotonin syndrome.

Key Concept

The management of Bipolar I disorder requires differentiating bipolar depression from unipolar depression to avoid antidepressant monotherapy, utilizing specific atypical antipsychotics as first-line agents, and ensuring proper pre-treatment medical evaluation for mood stabilizers like lithium.
Question 279Question →

A 34-year-old female software engineer presents to the clinic with a 6-week history of profound fatigue, sleeping 12 to 14 hours a day, significant weight gain, and an inability to focus on her work. She reports feeling hopeless and admits to passive thoughts of death, though she denies active suicidal ideation or any specific plan. She has no significant past medical history. A review of her medical records indicates that three years ago she was brought to the emergency department by her family for severe agitation, grandiosity, and going four consecutive days without sleep. She was hospitalized, diagnosed with a psychiatric condition, and prescribed medication, which she discontinued shortly after discharge. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory evaluation reveals a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 1.8μU/mL1.8 \mu\text{U/mL} (normal: 0.4−4.0μU/mL0.4-4.0 \mu\text{U/mL}) and a free T4 level of 1.2 ng/dL1.2 \text{ ng/dL} (normal: 0.9−2.4 ng/dL0.9-2.4 \text{ ng/dL}). Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological management for this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Lurasidone

Answer

The most appropriate pharmacological management is Lurasidone, as it effectively treats acute bipolar depression without the risk of precipitating mania.
The correct answer is Lurasidone. This patient is presenting with a major depressive episode characterized by hypersomnia, weight gain, depressed mood, and fatigue. Crucially, she has a clear history of a prior manic episode (severe agitation, grandiosity, and going four days without sleep requiring hospitalization). This firmly establishes a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder, current episode depressed. The standard of care for acute bipolar depression involves utilizing medications that effectively treat depression without inducing mania. First-line options include certain second-generation antipsychotics like lurasidone or quetiapine, or mood stabilizers like lithium. Lurasidone is FDA-approved specifically for bipolar depression and is a safe, effective choice.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current symptoms.
The patient exhibits severe fatigue, hypersomnia, weight gain, poor concentration, and passive death wishes, meeting the criteria for a major depressive episode.
To determine the current clinical state requiring intervention.
2
Evaluate the patient's psychiatric history.
The patient has a clear history of a severe manic episode (agitation, grandiosity, decreased need for sleep leading to hospitalization).
To differentiate between unipolar major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder.
3
Synthesize findings to confirm the diagnosis.
A history of a manic episode combined with a current depressive episode establishes the diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder, current episode depressed.
Accurate diagnosis dictates the pharmacological approach and prevents harmful prescribing errors.
4
Select the appropriate pharmacological treatment based on the diagnosis.
Lurasidone is chosen over antidepressant monotherapy.
Lurasidone is an approved, effective treatment for bipolar depression, whereas antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated due to the risk of precipitating a manic switch.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with depressive symptoms must be screened for a history of mania or hypomania to rule out bipolar disorder. First-line treatments for acute bipolar depression include lurasidone, quetiapine, or mood stabilizers like lithium, while antidepressant monotherapy must be strictly avoided.
Question 280Question →

A 29-year-old man comes to the clinic reporting severe anxiety, poor sleep, and frequent nightmares for the past 3 weeks. Three weeks ago, he was the driver of a commercial truck that was involved in a fatal collision with a pedestrian. Although he was not physically injured, he witnessed the aftermath. Since the incident, he has experienced intense intrusive memories of the event, refuses to drive or be near large vehicles, feels emotionally numb, and is constantly hypervigilant. His medical history is significant for bipolar I disorder, diagnosed at age 22, and chronic lower back pain. He discontinued his maintenance lithium 6 months ago because he felt well, and he currently takes no psychiatric medications. He takes tramadol as needed for his back pain. He expresses intense distress about his symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Refer for trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy

Answer

Refer for trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy
The correct answer is referring the patient for trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). This patient presents with symptoms of intrusion, avoidance, negative mood, and hyperarousal following a life-threatening traumatic event. Because his symptoms have been present for exactly 3 weeks (less than 1 month), the correct diagnosis is acute stress disorder (ASD). Trauma-focused CBT is the evidence-based, first-line treatment for ASD and is highly effective at preventing the subsequent development of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Additionally, psychopharmacologic interventions in this specific patient carry significant risks due to his unmedicated bipolar disorder and concurrent use of tramadol.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical syndrome and its timeline.
The patient experienced a life-threatening traumatic event 3 weeks ago and presents with intrusion, avoidance, negative mood, and hyperarousal symptoms.
Establishing the duration of symptoms is necessary to differentiate between acute stress disorder (symptoms for 3 days to 1 month) and post-traumatic stress disorder (symptoms for >1 month).
2
Establish the diagnosis.
Because the symptoms have been present for exactly 3 weeks, the correct diagnosis is acute stress disorder (ASD).
Diagnostic criteria strictness dictates management protocols and prognostic expectations.
3
Evaluate the patient's medical and psychiatric history for treatment contraindications.
The patient has unmedicated bipolar I disorder (making SSRI/SNRI monotherapy dangerous due to manic switch risk) and takes tramadol (making MAOIs contraindicated due to serotonin syndrome risk).
Safe psychopharmacologic prescribing requires ruling out drug-drug interactions and psychiatric contraindications.
4
Select the best treatment option.
Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is selected as the safest and most effective intervention.
Trauma-focused CBT is the evidence-based, first-line treatment for ASD and avoids all pharmacologic risks present in this patient.

Key Concept

Diagnosis and management of Acute Stress Disorder (ASD), including recognition of psychopharmacologic contraindications
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