Psychiatry

814 questions

Question 241Question →

A 35-year-old patient is diagnosed with severe Major Depressive Disorder without psychotic features. Arrange the following interventions in the standard sequential order of a stepped-care approach for this patient, progressing from the initial evaluation and management to interventions for highly treatment-resistant disease. Assume an inadequate clinical response to each preceding step.

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with screening for bipolar disorder and initiating first-line monotherapy, followed by optimizing or switching that monotherapy, then advancing to augmentation strategies, and finally utilizing electroconvulsive therapy for refractory cases.
The standard stepped-care algorithm for major depressive disorder begins with screening for bipolar disorder and starting a single first-line agent. If the response is inadequate, the dose is optimized or the patient is switched to another monotherapy. If monotherapy trials fail, an augmenting agent is added. Finally, if the patient is refractory to multiple pharmacological interventions, neuromodulation like ECT is utilized.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the standard initial evaluation and treatment for Major Depressive Disorder.
Screening for bipolar disorder followed by initiation of an SSRI or other first-line monotherapy.
SSRIs are preferred initial agents due to their safety and tolerability. Bipolar screening prevents antidepressant-induced mania.
2
Determine the next step when the initial medication trial is inadequate.
Optimizing the dose or switching to another monotherapy.
Before adding multiple medications, a single agent should be optimized to its maximal effective dose, or replaced if ineffective.
3
Establish the next pharmacological step for continued treatment resistance.
Augmentation with a second-generation antipsychotic or mood stabilizer.
Once monotherapy optimization fails, combining medications with different mechanisms (augmentation) is indicated.
4
Identify the definitive treatment for severe, refractory depression.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
ECT is the most effective treatment for depression but is typically reserved for treatment resistance due to logistical requirements and cognitive side effect considerations.

Key Concept

The stepped-care pharmacological management of major depressive disorder progresses sequentially from monotherapy to augmentation, and ultimately to neuromodulation for severe treatment resistance.
Question 242Question →

A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with major depressive disorder and prescribed an oral selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Arrange the following clinical events and milestones in the typical chronological order in which they are expected to occur during her treatment course, from the initial days of therapy to long-term management.

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with immediate side effects, followed by neurovegetative symptom improvement, a period of heightened suicide risk, delayed mood improvement, and finally the continuation phase.
The established clinical timeline for SSRI treatment involves immediate onset of side effects (days 1-7), followed by early improvement in neurovegetative symptoms like energy and sleep (weeks 1-2). Because energy returns before mood improves, patients experience a critical window of increased suicide risk during this mismatch. Finally, core mood symptoms and anhedonia remit (weeks 4-6), allowing the patient to enter the continuation phase of treatment (months 2-8).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the immediate effects of starting an SSRI.
Gastrointestinal upset and agitation occur within days.
Serotonergic side effects precede therapeutic benefits due to immediate receptor activation.
2
Determine the first depressive symptoms to improve.
Neurovegetative symptoms (sleep, energy, appetite) improve within 1 to 2 weeks.
Physical and vegetative symptoms respond faster than core psychological symptoms.
3
Assess the clinical consequence of mismatched symptom improvement.
A period of elevated suicide risk occurs.
Patients gain the energy to act on suicidal ideation before their subjective mood and hopelessness improve.
4
Identify the timeline for core symptom resolution.
Mood and anhedonia improve after 4 to 6 weeks.
Receptor downregulation and downstream neurogenesis require several weeks to produce emotional recovery.
5
Determine the next phase of treatment after achieving remission.
The continuation phase begins.
Clinical guidelines recommend 4 to 9 months of continued treatment post-remission to prevent relapse.

Key Concept

Timeline of clinical response and side effects for antidepressant pharmacotherapy
Question 243Question →

During morning rounds and surgical consultations, the consultation-liaison psychiatry team is asked to evaluate five different patients who are complicating their own medical care through deeply ingrained, inflexible behavioral patterns. Evaluate the interpersonal dynamics and defense mechanisms presented in each scenario, and pair each patient with the most accurate underlying psychiatric diagnosis.

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Items

A 34-year-old woman admitted for diabetic ketoacidosis becomes enraged when her primary internal medicine team is unavailable. She tells the covering resident, 'You are the only doctor in this hospital who actually cares; the others are completely incompetent and maliciously want me to suffer,' before subsequently threatening to pull out her IV lines when the resident announces he must go see another patient.
A 52-year-old man admitted for a work-up of vague abdominal pain repeatedly refuses routine morning blood draws. He meticulously questions the phlebotomist about the sterilization of the needles and openly suspects that the hospital is secretly testing his DNA to sell to insurance companies, interpreting minor schedule delays as definitive evidence of a coordinated institutional plot against him.
A 40-year-old man scheduled for an elective hernia repair provides the anesthesiologist with a meticulously detailed, color-coded spreadsheet of his entire medical history. He demands that the clinical team follow his exact, rigid schedule for premedication and becomes intensely frustrated when told that standardized hospital protocols must take precedence, insisting his personal system is logically superior.
A 29-year-old woman admitted for an asthma exacerbation insists on keeping her brightly colored, mismatched esoteric jewelry on during treatments. She tells the pulmonologist that she can feel the 'auric energy of the albuterol' clearing her lungs. She appears highly anxious around the nursing staff, attributing her discomfort to a belief that they have 'negative telepathic intentions' towards her.
A 60-year-old man hospitalized for community-acquired pneumonia is polite but highly detached, providing brief, monotone answers to all clinical questions. He shows no interest in contacting his family about his admission, requests a private room specifically to avoid interacting with a roommate, and exhibits profound indifference to both the severity of his illness and the praise of the nursing staff, preferring to spend his time alone solving complex chess puzzles.

Matches

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Answer

Vignette 1 matches Borderline Personality Disorder; Vignette 2 matches Paranoid Personality Disorder; Vignette 3 matches Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder; Vignette 4 matches Schizotypal Personality Disorder; Vignette 5 matches Schizoid Personality Disorder.
The correct pairings require identifying the core psychodynamic defense mechanisms and pervasive behavioral patterns characteristic of each personality disorder as they manifest in stressful medical settings. Borderline is marked by splitting and abandonment fears; Paranoid by pervasive distrust; OCPD by ego-syntonic rigidity and control; Schizotypal by magical thinking and paranoid social anxiety; and Schizoid by profound interpersonal detachment and flattened affect.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the 34-year-old woman with DKA.
Identify splitting behavior and acute fear of abandonment.
These defense mechanisms are the diagnostic hallmarks of Borderline Personality Disorder.
2
Evaluate the 52-year-old man with abdominal pain.
Identify pervasive suspicion and interpretation of benign events as malicious plots.
This non-delusional paranoia is the core defining feature of Paranoid Personality Disorder.
3
Evaluate the 40-year-old man scheduled for hernia repair.
Identify extreme rigidity, perfectionism, and an intense need for control.
These ego-syntonic traits define Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder.
4
Evaluate the 29-year-old woman with asthma.
Identify magical thinking, odd appearance, and paranoid social anxiety.
These eccentricities and cognitive distortions point directly to Schizotypal Personality Disorder.
5
Evaluate the 60-year-old man with pneumonia.
Identify profound social detachment, restricted affect, and indifference.
This genuine lack of desire for relationships and emotional flattening is classic for Schizoid Personality Disorder.

Key Concept

Differentiating personality disorders based on pervasive maladaptive defense mechanisms and interpersonal patterns manifesting in clinical medical-surgical settings.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 244Question →

A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit due to a 4-week history of severe depressed mood, hypersomnia, profound fatigue, and passive suicidal ideation. Her psychiatric history is significant for a severe manic episode at age 26 that required a 2-week hospitalization, establishing a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder. She discontinued her prescribed maintenance lithium two years ago due to weight gain. For the past month, she has been taking daily over-the-counter St. John's wort and 5-hydroxytryptophan (5-HTP) supplements. Her past medical history includes a non-functioning pituitary microadenoma diagnosed incidentally last year, for which she currently takes no medications.

Physical examination reveals a flat affect, psychomotor retardation, and delayed deep tendon reflexes.

Laboratory studies show:

Laboratory TestPatient ValueReference Range
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)1.5 µU/mL0.5–5.0 µU/mL
Free thyroxine (T4)0.5 ng/dL0.9–1.7 ng/dL

Comprehensive metabolic panel and complete blood count are within normal limits.

Which of the following are appropriate management steps for this patient? (Select all that apply)

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Answer: Initiate lurasidone and monitor for symptomatic improvement; Discontinue her current over-the-counter supplements

Answer

The appropriate management steps are to initiate an evidence-based treatment for bipolar depression, such as lurasidone, and to discontinue her serotonergic over-the-counter supplements.
The patient is experiencing an acute depressive episode in the context of Bipolar I disorder. Lurasidone is an FDA-approved, first-line atypical antipsychotic for the treatment of bipolar depression that carries a lower risk of metabolic side effects and is highly appropriate for this episode. Furthermore, the patient is taking St. John's wort and 5-HTP, both of which increase serotonergic tone. These over-the-counter supplements must be discontinued immediately because they lack robust efficacy for bipolar depression and pose a severe risk for serotonin syndrome if combined with prescribed psychiatric medications.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric diagnosis and phase of illness.
The patient has a history of a severe manic episode and is currently presenting with major depressive symptoms, confirming an acute depressive episode of Bipolar I disorder.
Accurate diagnosis of the mood episode dictates the appropriate psychopharmacological intervention and prevents treatments that could induce mood destabilization.
2
Evaluate the patient's current medication and supplement list for potential interactions.
The patient is taking St. John's wort and 5-HTP, both of which are strongly serotonergic.
Identifying concurrent serotonergic agents is critical to avoid precipitating serotonin syndrome when initiating new psychotropics.
3
Interpret the thyroid function tests in the context of her medical history.
The patient has a low free T4 with an inappropriately normal TSH, consistent with central (secondary) hypothyroidism, likely secondary to her known pituitary microadenoma.
Distinguishing between primary and secondary hypothyroidism is crucial, as secondary hypothyroidism requires evaluation of the adrenal axis before initiating thyroid hormone replacement to avoid an adrenal crisis.
4
Select the appropriate pharmacological interventions based on the gathered data.
Lurasidone is selected as a safe, first-line agent for bipolar depression, while the OTC supplements must be discontinued. SSRIs and MAOIs are contraindicated, and levothyroxine should be deferred pending adrenal evaluation.
This multimodal approach ensures effective treatment of bipolar depression while mitigating the risks of manic switch, drug interactions, and endocrine emergencies.

Key Concept

Management of acute bipolar I depression requires selecting approved mood stabilizers or atypical antipsychotics (e.g., lurasidone) while avoiding antidepressant monotherapy. Additionally, clinicians must remain vigilant for dangerous drug interactions (e.g., serotonin syndrome) and correctly interpret lab anomalies to rule out medical mimics or comorbidities.
Estimated Time:2m 30s
Question 245Question →

A 24-year-old woman is evaluated in the psychiatric clinic for worsening mood. For the past two months, she has experienced pervasive sadness, anhedonia, hypersomnia (sleeping 12 to 14 hours a day), and a 6-kg (13-lb) weight gain. She describes her arms and legs as feeling "heavy like lead," though she notes her mood brightens temporarily when her sister comes to visit. Three years ago, she was hospitalized for a one-week episode during which she slept only two hours a night, spoke extremely rapidly, and spent her entire savings. During that admission, she heard a voice telling her she was a prophet, but this hallucination resolved completely within 5 days alongside her other symptoms after she received acute treatment. She is currently taking fluoxetine, which was prescribed by her primary care physician three weeks ago, but she reports no improvement.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Diagnose bipolar I disorder; discontinue fluoxetine and initiate quetiapine

Answer

Diagnose bipolar I disorder; discontinue fluoxetine and initiate quetiapine
The correct answer accurately synthesizes the patient's current atypical depressive episode with her past history of a manic episode (decreased sleep, pressured speech, grandiosity, reckless spending requiring hospitalization for 1 week) to diagnose bipolar I disorder. Because SSRI monotherapy can trigger a manic switch in patients with bipolar disorder, the current fluoxetine must be stopped. Quetiapine is a second-generation antipsychotic with FDA approval and strong efficacy for treating acute bipolar depression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the current clinical presentation.
The patient is experiencing a severe depressive episode characterized by atypical features, including hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, weight gain, and mood reactivity.
To establish the current mood state.
2
Evaluate the psychiatric history for prior mood episodes.
The patient had a prior episode of decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and reckless spending lasting one week and requiring hospitalization. This definitively meets the criteria for a manic episode.
To differentiate between unipolar major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder.
3
Assess the timing and duration of past psychotic symptoms.
The hallucinations (hearing a voice) occurred exclusively during the one-week manic episode and resolved simultaneously with the mood symptoms.
To rule out primary psychotic disorders (schizophrenia, schizophreniform) or schizoaffective disorder, which require different timelines or psychosis in the absence of mood episodes.
4
Determine the correct diagnosis and the safest next step in pharmacological management.
The diagnosis is bipolar I disorder, currently depressed. The current fluoxetine (an SSRI) must be discontinued to avoid inducing mania, and a bipolar-appropriate agent like quetiapine should be initiated.
SSRI monotherapy is contraindicated in bipolar disorder, whereas quetiapine is an FDA-approved first-line treatment for bipolar depression.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with depressive episodes must be carefully screened for a history of mania; if bipolar I disorder is diagnosed, SSRI monotherapy should be discontinued to prevent a manic switch, and an appropriate agent like quetiapine should be initiated.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 246Question →

A medical student is reviewing the pharmacological management of bipolar disorder. Match each medication to its most appropriate baseline screening and monitoring requirement prior to initiation.

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Items

Lithium
Valproate
Carbamazepine
Ziprasidone

Matches

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Answer

Lithium matches with TSH/renal function; Valproate matches with LFTs/platelets; Carbamazepine matches with CBC/HLA-B*1502; Ziprasidone matches with ECG/electrolytes.
The correct matches directly correspond to the distinct, high-yield toxicity profiles of each medication used in bipolar disorder management.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clearance mechanism and major organ toxicities for Lithium.
Lithium is renally excreted and strongly affects thyroid tissue. Therefore, TSH, BUN, and creatinine are required.
To establish a baseline before exposing the kidneys and thyroid to potential lithium-induced toxicity.
2
Identify the major black box warnings for Valproate.
Valproate is known for severe hepatotoxicity and thrombocytopenia, matching it directly to LFTs and platelet count.
To ensure normal hepatic function and hematologic status prior to initiation.
3
Recall the hematologic and dermatologic risks of Carbamazepine.
Carbamazepine can cause agranulocytosis and Stevens-Johnson syndrome (linked to the HLA-B*1502 allele), requiring a CBC and genetic screening.
To prevent severe hematologic dyscrasias and life-threatening dermatologic reactions.
4
Recognize the specific cardiac risk associated with Ziprasidone.
Ziprasidone is highly associated with QTc prolongation, necessitating a baseline ECG and electrolyte panel.
To avoid initiating a QTc-prolonging agent in a patient with pre-existing cardiac conduction delays.

Key Concept

Pre-treatment baseline laboratory and diagnostic workup for bipolar disorder pharmacotherapy
Question 247Question →

A 27-year-old man is referred to a psychiatrist for an evaluation requested by his employer. Over the past four years, his coworkers have complained that he behaves oddly, often wearing heavy winter clothing in the middle of summer and muttering to himself in the breakroom. During the interview, the patient makes poor eye contact and displays a constricted affect. He explains that he avoids social gatherings because he feels "out of sync" with others. When discussing his lack of friends, he utilizes fantasy as a defense mechanism, explaining that he does not need physical companions because he maintains strong telepathic connections with others on an "astral plane." He denies ever hearing external voices, seeing things that are not there, or feeling that his thoughts are being controlled by outside forces. His thought processes, while highly eccentric, remain logical. These traits have been stable since his late teens. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

Answer

Schizotypal personality disorder
The correct diagnosis is schizotypal personality disorder. This condition is part of the Cluster A (odd/eccentric) personality disorders and is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits, reduced capacity for close relationships, cognitive or perceptual distortions, and eccentricities of behavior. This patient's odd clothing, magical thinking (belief in telepathic connections on an 'astral plane'), and constricted affect, all present since adolescence without frank hallucinations or fixed delusions, perfectly fit this diagnosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the chronological timeline of the patient's symptoms.
The patient has had stable, long-standing traits since his late teens, pointing toward a personality disorder rather than an acute psychotic episode.
Establishing the timeline helps rule out acute psychotic disorders like schizophrenia or schizophreniform disorder.
2
Evaluate the presence or absence of frank psychotic features.
The patient denies hearing voices or having visual hallucinations, and his thoughts are logical, ruling out schizophrenia-spectrum disorders.
Differentiating eccentric beliefs (magical thinking) from true, fixed delusions is critical in diagnosing Cluster A personality disorders.
3
Categorize the specific personality traits and defense mechanisms.
The combination of social anxiety, odd appearance, constricted affect, and the use of fantasy/magical thinking (telepathy) precisely aligns with the diagnostic criteria for schizotypal personality disorder.
This constellation differentiates the presentation from other personality disorders like schizoid (no magical thinking) and avoidant (desires relationships, lacks eccentricity).

Key Concept

Differentiation of Cluster A Personality Disorders from Psychotic Disorders
Question 248Question →

A 35-year-old woman is evaluated in the psychiatric clinic for severe anxiety and intrusive memories. Six months ago, she was the victim of a violent home invasion. Since the event, she has experienced frequent nightmares about the attack, avoids leaving her house, and remains excessively vigilant. She also reports a 3-week history of depressed mood, severe fatigue, and anhedonia. Her past psychiatric history is significant for two hospitalizations in her early twenties for episodes characterized by a markedly decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and grandiose delusions. Her only current medication is phenelzine, an MAOI, which was started by a different physician two months ago for depression. Which of the following statements regarding the appropriate diagnosis and management of this patient are correct?

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Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy is indicated as a primary first-line psychological intervention for her trauma-related symptoms.; A mood-stabilizing medication should be considered as an essential component of her pharmacological regimen due to her psychiatric history.

Answer

The correct statements are that trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy is indicated as a primary intervention, and a mood-stabilizing medication should be considered as an essential component of her regimen.
The patient is suffering from Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) and a current depressive episode in the context of a history of Bipolar I Disorder. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is the gold standard, first-line non-pharmacological treatment for PTSD and is entirely safe to initiate. Additionally, because the patient has a clear history of manic episodes with psychotic features (grandiose delusions), any long-term pharmacological treatment plan must incorporate a mood stabilizer to prevent antidepressant-induced manic switching.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the presenting symptoms and timeline to establish the primary acute diagnosis.
The patient exhibits intrusive memories, nightmares, avoidance, and hypervigilance lasting for 6 months following a violent trauma, which firmly establishes the diagnosis of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD).
Accurate diagnosis of the current episode is required to guide immediate therapy.
2
Evaluate the patient's past psychiatric history to identify comorbid conditions.
The history of hospitalizations for decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and grandiose delusions confirms a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder.
Comorbid Bipolar I Disorder significantly alters the safety profile of standard antidepressant therapies.
3
Assess the safety of potential pharmacological and non-pharmacological interventions.
Non-pharmacological trauma-focused CBT is safe and effective. Pharmacologically, adding an SSRI to her current MAOI (phenelzine) risks Serotonin Syndrome, and using SSRI monotherapy risks a manic switch.
Preventing iatrogenic harm (Serotonin Syndrome or manic induction) is a critical priority in psychiatric management.

Key Concept

Management of PTSD with comorbid Bipolar I Disorder involves utilizing trauma-focused psychotherapy and strictly avoiding SSRI monotherapy or concurrent MAOI/SSRI administration to prevent manic switching and Serotonin Syndrome.
Question 249Question →

A 72-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to a progressive physical decline over the past week. She has a history of persistent depressive disorder since her late 40s and was diagnosed with a superimposed major depressive episode 6 months ago following her husband's stroke. During the current episode, she sequentially failed 8-week trials of sertraline and venlafaxine at maximum tolerated doses. Four weeks ago, her psychiatrist initiated a combination of fluoxetine 40 mg and bupropion 150 mg daily. Over the past 7 days, she has entirely refused to eat or drink, stating that her "stomach has been replaced by a block of ice" and that eating is a sin. On examination, she is mute, exhibits severe psychomotor retardation, and avoids eye contact. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg. Her mucous membranes are extremely dry, and skin turgor is poor. Laboratory results show a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 48 mg/dL and a serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (baseline 4 weeks ago was 0.8 mg/dL). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Admit for medical stabilization and initiate electroconvulsive therapy

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to admit the patient for medical stabilization (including intravenous fluids) and initiate electroconvulsive therapy.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is the first-line treatment of choice for patients with major depressive disorder who develop life-threatening complications such as severe suicidality, severe malnutrition, or dehydration due to food and fluid refusal. This patient is suffering from unipolar psychotic depression (characterized by the mood-congruent nihilistic delusion that her stomach is a 'block of ice') and has subsequently developed an acute kidney injury from severe dehydration. In this scenario, ECT provides a rapid, life-saving response, whereas waiting 4 to 6 weeks for oral psychopharmacological medications to take effect would likely be fatal. Medical stabilization with intravenous fluids must be initiated concurrently with the psychiatric admission for ECT.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric diagnosis.
The patient has Major Depressive Disorder, severe, with psychotic features, specifically demonstrating a nihilistic somatic delusion (Cotard syndrome).
She believes her stomach is a 'block of ice' and eating is a sin, which are classic mood-congruent psychotic features.
2
Assess the medical severity and acuity of the presentation.
The patient has life-threatening inanition (refusal to eat or drink), resulting in severe dehydration, tachycardia, and acute kidney injury (BUN 48 mg/dL, Cr 1.9 mg/dL).
Her physical decline and lab values indicate she is medically unstable and cannot wait weeks for oral medications to take effect.
3
Determine the optimal treatment algorithm for this acute presentation.
Urgent electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is the gold standard for severe, life-threatening psychotic depression, especially in the geriatric population.
ECT provides the most rapid and effective response when a patient's food and fluid refusal creates a life-threatening medical emergency.
4
Evaluate alternative psychopharmacological interventions.
Oral antidepressant-antipsychotic combinations are too slow, and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are contraindicated due to the recent fluoxetine use.
Fluoxetine's long half-life necessitates a mandatory 5-week washout period before an MAOI can be safely initiated.

Key Concept

Emergency indications for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) in Major Depressive Disorder, specifically targeting psychotic depression accompanied by life-threatening inanition.
Question 250Question →

Paramedics bring a 30-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks gestation to the emergency department. She called 911 reporting sudden, overwhelming chest tightness, diaphoresis, and a sensation of smothering. Upon arrival in the ED, the patient is tremulous and states, "I thought I was having a heart attack and going to die." She reports the symptoms began while she was watching television and peaked within five minutes. She admits to having three similar episodes over the past four weeks. Consequently, she has stopped driving and refuses to go to the supermarket out of fear that a similar event might occur in public.

Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, heart rate is 118/min, and respiratory rate is 26/min. Pulse oximetry is 99% on room air. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Cardiac examination reveals a regular rhythm with a grade 2/6 early systolic murmur at the left upper sternal border. No lower extremity edema is present. An electrocardiogram demonstrates sinus tachycardia. Arterial blood gas on room air shows a pH of 7.50, pCO2pCO_2 of 27 mm Hg, and pO2pO_2 of 104 mm Hg. A plasma D-dimer level is 0.7 mg/L (normal non-pregnant ≤\leq 0.5 mg/L).

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Reassurance and referral for cognitive-behavioral therapy

Answer

Reassurance and referral for cognitive-behavioral therapy
This patient's recurrent, unexpected episodes of intense fear, cardiopulmonary symptoms (palpitations, shortness of breath, chest tightness) peaking within minutes, and subsequent behavioral changes (avoidance of driving and public places) are highly characteristic of Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia. Her physical examination and laboratory findings help confidently rule out acute medical emergencies. The soft systolic murmur and slightly elevated D-dimer are normal physiologic changes of late pregnancy due to increased blood volume and a hypercoagulable state. Furthermore, the arterial blood gas shows an acute respiratory alkalosis secondary to hyperventilation, which is typical during a panic attack. Once life-threatening conditions are ruled out, the most appropriate next step is reassurance and initiation of treatment. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a first-line, evidence-based treatment for panic disorder. In a pregnant patient, non-pharmacological interventions like CBT are particularly preferred to effectively manage the disorder while avoiding potential adverse fetal effects associated with psychotropic medications.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and temporal pattern.
The patient has abrupt, recurrent episodes of intense fear and cardiopulmonary symptoms peaking in minutes, coupled with consequent avoidance behavior.
To differentiate between acute medical emergencies and primary psychiatric conditions.
2
Evaluate physical exam and laboratory findings in the context of the third trimester of pregnancy.
The grade 2/6 systolic murmur and mild D-dimer elevation are noted as normal physiologic changes of pregnancy. Oxygenation is excellent, and lungs are clear.
To rule out organic causes of dyspnea and tachycardia (e.g., pulmonary embolism, heart failure) without overreacting to normal gestational physiology.
3
Interpret the arterial blood gas.
Elevated pH with a low pCO2pCO_2 indicates acute respiratory alkalosis secondary to hyperventilation.
To confirm the physiologic consequence of a panic attack and rule out underlying metabolic derangements.
4
Establish the diagnosis and select the safest, most effective treatment.
The diagnosis is Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is selected as the next step.
CBT is a first-line treatment for panic disorder and avoids the potential teratogenic risks of pharmacotherapy during pregnancy.

Key Concept

Diagnosis and management of Panic Disorder and Agoraphobia in pregnancy, emphasizing the differentiation of anxiety symptoms from normal physiologic changes of pregnancy.
Question 251Question →

A 29-year-old woman presents to the outpatient gynecology clinic for a routine wellness examination and contraception counseling. During the initial interview, she is exceptionally complimentary, telling the physician, "You are the only doctor I have ever met who truly listens. My last gynecologist was completely incompetent, ignored my concerns, and practically ruined my health." Toward the end of the appointment, she asks for the physician's personal cell phone number, stating she needs it "just in case I have a medical emergency after hours." When the physician politely declines and explains the clinic's standard answering service and on-call procedures, the patient's demeanor changes abruptly. She becomes visibly furious, yells that the physician is "just as cold and heartless as the rest of them," and threatens to leave without undergoing the physical examination. The patient has no history of mania, psychosis, or substance use disorder. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Validate the patient's frustration while firmly reiterating the clinic's communication policies

Answer

Validate the patient's frustration while firmly reiterating the clinic's communication policies
The correct approach involves validating the patient's emotional distress while remaining firm on professional limits. Patients with borderline personality disorder frequently employ splitting (alternating between extremes of idealization and devaluation) and struggle with an intense fear of abandonment. When a boundary is set, they may react with sudden, intense anger. The cornerstone of managing these patients in any clinical setting is to avoid power struggles, refrain from becoming defensive, acknowledge their frustration, and consistently enforce clear, professional boundaries.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's behavioral pattern during the clinical encounter.
The patient demonstrates idealization ('you are the only doctor... who truly listens') rapidly followed by devaluation ('cold and heartless as the rest') when her request is denied. This is the defense mechanism known as splitting.
Identifying the defense mechanism helps establish the underlying psychopathology, which is highly suggestive of borderline personality disorder (BPD).
2
Evaluate the specific trigger for the patient's outburst.
The outburst was triggered by the physician declining to provide a personal phone number, which the patient perceives as rejection or abandonment.
Patients with BPD have a profound fear of abandonment and often test interpersonal boundaries to secure attachment.
3
Determine the most appropriate management strategy for boundary testing.
The physician must maintain a calm, non-defensive posture, validate the patient's emotional experience, and consistently enforce the clinic's professional boundaries.
Yielding to boundary violations worsens the pathology over time, while punitive responses escalate the patient's distress. Clear, consistent boundaries provide a secure therapeutic framework.

Key Concept

Management of Borderline Personality Disorder (Physician-Patient Boundaries)
Question 252Question →

A 22-year-old college student is referred to the university psychiatric clinic by his academic advisor due to social isolation and eccentric behavior. For the past three years, the patient has had no close friends and spends most of his weekends extensively researching clairvoyance, telepathy, and astral projection. He tells the physician that he can frequently "feel the vibrational energy" of other people in the room, which makes him highly uncomfortable in crowds. He wears a heavy trench coat adorned with multiple mismatched scarves, regardless of the weather. His speech is vague and highly circumstantial, often drifting into tangential discussions about "cosmic alignments," but his thought process remains goal-directed without frank disorganization. He explicitly denies auditory or visual hallucinations, and there is no evidence of major depressive or manic episodes. He occasionally takes citalopram, which was prescribed by his primary care physician for mild generalized anxiety. Which of the following statements regarding the diagnosis and management of this patient's condition are accurate? (Select 2)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The clinical presentation represents a pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits, marked by eccentricities of behavior and cognitive distortions.; Off-label use of a low-dose second-generation antipsychotic may be considered to help attenuate his perceptual distortions and eccentric thinking.

Answer

The condition is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits, and off-label use of low-dose second-generation antipsychotics can help attenuate perceptual distortions.
The correct answers accurately identify the diagnostic criteria and adjunctive pharmacological management for Schizotypal Personality Disorder (StPD). StPD is defined in the DSM-5 as a pervasive pattern of social deficits marked by acute discomfort with close relationships, accompanied by cognitive/perceptual distortions and eccentric behavior. While psychotherapy is the cornerstone of treatment, low-dose second-generation antipsychotics are well-supported off-label interventions to manage the specific cognitive-perceptual symptoms (e.g., ideas of reference, illusions) and eccentricities.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's core symptoms and timeline.
The patient has a 3-year history of social isolation, odd beliefs (clairvoyance), perceptual distortions (feeling 'vibrational energy'), eccentric appearance (trench coat in summer), and vague speech. He lacks frank hallucinations, delusions, or mood episodes.
Establishing the severity and duration of symptoms differentiates personality disorders from psychotic or mood disorders.
2
Differentiate Schizotypal Personality Disorder from schizophrenia spectrum disorders.
The lack of frank psychosis (no true delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech) and long-standing ego-syntonic eccentricities rule out schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder. The diagnosis is Schizotypal Personality Disorder.
Cluster A personality disorders share features with schizophrenia but fall below the threshold for acute psychosis.
3
Evaluate the management options and psychopharmacological principles.
Low-dose atypical antipsychotics can target cognitive-perceptual symptoms in Schizotypal PD. Combining SSRIs with MAOIs is lethal (serotonin syndrome), and SSRI monotherapy in bipolar disorder is contraindicated.
Safe psychopharmacological management requires recognizing both off-label benefits for specific symptom clusters and absolute contraindications.

Key Concept

Diagnosis and management of Schizotypal Personality Disorder, including differentiation from schizophrenia and safe psychopharmacological principles.
Question 253Question →

A 24-year-old graduate student presents to the clinic reporting that she has felt "down and empty" for the past 6 weeks. She describes poor appetite, waking up multiple times during the night, low energy, and an inability to enjoy her usual hobbies. She feels guilty about her recently declining academic performance. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Her physical examination is unremarkable. The physician determines that she meets the criteria for a major depressive episode and considers initiating pharmacotherapy with an antidepressant. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the psychiatric evaluation prior to prescribing this medication?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assess for a history of elevated mood, rapid speech, and decreased need for sleep

Answer

Assess for a history of elevated mood, rapid speech, and decreased need for sleep
The correct answer is to assess for a history of elevated mood, rapid speech, and decreased need for sleep. A major depressive episode can be the presenting phase of either Major Depressive Disorder (unipolar depression) or Bipolar Disorder. The DSM-5 criteria for Major Depressive Disorder explicitly state that there must never have been a manic or hypomanic episode. Furthermore, prescribing antidepressant monotherapy (such as an SSRI or SNRI) to a patient with unrecognized bipolar disorder carries a significant risk of inducing a manic switch. Therefore, screening for past hypomania or mania is a mandatory step before initiating antidepressant treatment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical syndrome.
The patient has a 6-week history of low mood, anhedonia, insomnia, fatigue, and guilt, meeting the criteria for a major depressive episode.
Establishing the current syndrome is the first step in psychiatric diagnosis.
2
Determine the safety requirements before initiating antidepressant therapy.
Antidepressants can trigger a manic episode in patients with bipolar disorder. Therefore, a major depressive episode cannot be definitively diagnosed as Major Depressive Disorder until a history of mania or hypomania is ruled out.
Diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive Disorder explicitly require that there has never been a manic or hypomanic episode.
3
Select the appropriate next clinical action.
The clinician must ask about prior episodes of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and increased energy/activity.
This screening prevents the iatrogenic harm of inducing a manic switch with antidepressant monotherapy.

Key Concept

Prior to prescribing antidepressant monotherapy for a major depressive episode, clinicians must screen for a history of mania or hypomania to rule out bipolar disorder and prevent an iatrogenic manic switch.
Question 254Question →

A 31-year-old male architect visits a new psychiatrist seeking help for severe, debilitating anxiety. He describes being overwhelmed by intrusive, horrific images of his house catching fire. To neutralize these thoughts, he feels driven to check the stove and electrical outlets exactly twelve times before leaving for work. This ritual consumes over two hours daily, threatening his employment. He also reports experiencing a profoundly depressed mood, fatigue, and anhedonia for the past six weeks. His medical record reveals a prior psychiatric admission three years ago for an episode of grandiosity, pressured speech, and zero sleep requirement that lasted 10 days. The patient is currently taking tranylcypromine, prescribed by a previous provider, but finds it ineffective for his checking rituals. He requests to switch to a different class of medication, specifically a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), starting today.

Which of the following actions represent appropriate steps in the comprehensive management of this patient's psychiatric conditions? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Refer the patient for psychotherapy focused on repeated, prolonged encounters with feared stimuli while resisting compulsions; Cease tranylcypromine and enforce a mandatory 14-day washout period before initiating any serotonergic medications; Incorporate a mood-stabilizing agent into the pharmacological regimen if an antidepressant is eventually prescribed

Answer

The appropriate steps include referring for Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) therapy, enforcing a 14-day washout period after stopping the MAOI, and ensuring a mood stabilizer is co-administered if an antidepressant is eventually started.
The patient presents with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) and Bipolar I Disorder. Appropriate management requires a multi-faceted approach. First, Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) is the recognized first-line psychotherapy for OCD. Second, the patient is currently on tranylcypromine (an MAOI) and wishes to switch to an SSRI. This transition requires a mandatory 14-day washout period to prevent serotonin syndrome. Finally, because the patient has a history of a full manic episode, any future antidepressant therapy must be accompanied by a mood-stabilizing agent to prevent a treatment-emergent manic switch.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric diagnoses based on the clinical history.
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) and Bipolar I Disorder (currently in a depressive episode).
Intrusive thoughts neutralized by time-consuming checking rituals indicate OCD. A prior 10-day hospitalization for grandiosity and decreased sleep establishes Bipolar I Disorder, alongside current symptoms of a major depressive episode.
2
Determine the appropriate psychosocial intervention for the patient's OCD symptoms.
Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) therapy.
ERP is the gold-standard psychological treatment for OCD, involving exposure to the anxiety-provoking stimulus without performing the compulsive behavior.
3
Evaluate the safety of the patient's request to immediately switch from an MAOI to an SSRI.
A 14-day drug-free washout period is mandatory before starting the SSRI.
Combining or immediately sequencing an MAOI (tranylcypromine) with an SSRI creates a high risk of fatal serotonin syndrome due to excess synaptic serotonin accumulation.
4
Assess the pharmacological safety requirements for treating depression in the context of his comorbidities.
A mood stabilizer must be co-administered if an antidepressant is utilized.
Antidepressant monotherapy in a patient with a confirmed history of mania (Bipolar I) can precipitate a rapid switch into a manic episode.

Key Concept

The comprehensive management of complex psychiatric presentations requires integrating targeted first-line psychotherapy (e.g., ERP for OCD) while safely navigating critical pharmacological transitions (MAOI to SSRI washout) and protecting against affective destabilization (preventing manic switch in comorbid Bipolar I Disorder).
Question 255Question →

Match each clinical vignette with the most likely personality disorder diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 24-year-old woman refuses a promotion because it requires more interpersonal contact, expressing an intense fear of criticism and feeling inept compared to her colleagues.
A 30-year-old man wears overly flamboyant clothing, behaves in a highly theatrical manner, and becomes visibly upset when he is not the center of attention.
A 45-year-old executive demands to see the 'chief of medicine', boasts about his unique talents, and dismisses the inconvenience his demands cause the clinic staff.
A 35-year-old night shift guard has no friends by choice, shows flat affect, prefers solitary activities, and states he has no interest in close relationships.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matches are: the 24-year-old woman with Avoidant Personality Disorder, the 30-year-old man with Histrionic Personality Disorder, the 45-year-old executive with Narcissistic Personality Disorder, and the 35-year-old guard with Schizoid Personality Disorder.
Each vignette describes the classic, undisputed DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for the respective personality disorders, focusing on their most defining features (social inhibition for avoidant, attention-seeking for histrionic, grandiosity for narcissistic, and detachment for schizoid).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first vignette for core personality traits.
The patient shows social inhibition and fear of criticism despite an underlying desire to be accepted.
This differentiates avoidant traits from those of cluster A disorders where there is no desire for social connection.
2
Analyze the second vignette.
The patient demonstrates attention-seeking, flamboyant, and theatrical behavior.
These are the hallmark criteria for Histrionic personality disorder (Cluster B).
3
Analyze the third vignette.
The patient exhibits grandiosity, entitlement, and a profound lack of empathy for others.
These traits specifically define Narcissistic personality disorder (Cluster B).
4
Analyze the fourth vignette.
The patient shows social detachment by choice and restricted affect.
These represent the core diagnostic criteria for Schizoid personality disorder (Cluster A).

Key Concept

Clinical presentation and differentiation of major personality disorders
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 256Question →

A 42-year-old male marketing executive presents to the clinic for a two-month history of pervasive anhedonia, early morning awakening, and an unintentional 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss. He reports that his symptoms have severely impaired his concentration, leading to a recent formal reprimand at work. He is seeking pharmacologic treatment. Assuming this patient will eventually develop treatment-resistant depression over the next year, arrange the following clinical management steps in the standard chronological sequence according to evidence-based stepped-care guidelines.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence for managing this patient's evolving treatment-resistant depression is: screening for bipolar disorder, titrating the initial SSRI to a maximum dose, augmenting with a second agent for partial response, switching to a different class upon augmentation failure, and finally utilizing ECT for severe treatment-resistant symptoms.
The standard stepped-care escalation for major depressive disorder begins with ruling out bipolar disorder to prevent antidepressant-induced mania. Once unipolar depression is confirmed, a first-line agent (e.g., an SSRI) is initiated and titrated to its maximum tolerated dose to ensure an adequate trial. If the patient has a partial response, augmenting with a second agent (like an atypical antipsychotic) is preferred to build on existing progress. If the augmented regimen fails, cross-tapering to a medication in a different class (e.g., an SNRI) is indicated. Finally, if the patient fails multiple adequate trials and develops severe, life-threatening symptoms such as active suicidality, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is the definitive next step for treatment-resistant depression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Prior to initiating any pharmacotherapy, comprehensively evaluate for bipolar disorder.
A detailed psychiatric history is obtained to rule out past manic or hypomanic episodes.
Antidepressant monotherapy in unrecognized bipolar disorder can induce a manic switch or rapid cycling.
2
Initiate a first-line antidepressant and optimize the dose.
Sertraline is started and titrated to the maximum tolerated therapeutic level over several weeks.
Subtherapeutic dosing is a leading cause of pseudo-resistance; an adequate trial requires maximizing the dose before changing strategies.
3
Implement an augmentation strategy for a partial therapeutic response.
A second-generation antipsychotic (e.g., aripiprazole) is added to the optimized sertraline regimen.
Augmentation is preferred over switching when a patient has a partial response, as it builds upon the partial efficacy already achieved without losing progress.
4
Switch to a different pharmacologic class if the augmented regimen fails.
The patient is cross-tapered from the SSRI to an SNRI (e.g., venlafaxine).
When an optimized and augmented trial fails, switching to an agent with a different mechanism of action (e.g., adding norepinephrine reuptake inhibition) is indicated.
5
Recommend neuromodulation for severe treatment-resistant depression.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is initiated.
After failing multiple adequate trials of different antidepressant classes, or with the emergence of life-threatening symptoms like severe suicidality, ECT becomes the treatment of choice.

Key Concept

The stepped-care escalation algorithm for major depressive disorder.
Question 257Question →

Match each patient's clinical vignette with the most appropriate personality disorder diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A thirty-four-year-old accountant declines most social invitations. He intensely desires companionship but is profoundly afraid of being ridiculed or judged inadequately by others.
A forty-two-year-old archivist expresses no desire for close relationships. He prefers solitary hobbies and shows minimal emotional reactivity to praise or criticism from his supervisors.
A twenty-five-year-old graduate student relies entirely on her roommate to choose her daily outfits. She feels profound helplessness and fear when briefly left alone.
A thirty-one-year-old fitness instructor uses highly impressionistic speech and theatrical gestures to describe a minor inconvenience, insisting the clinic staff are her 'dearest friends'.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The accountant matches Avoidant Personality Disorder. The archivist matches Schizoid Personality Disorder. The graduate student matches Dependent Personality Disorder. The fitness instructor matches Histrionic Personality Disorder.
Each vignette provides the defining DSM-5 criteria for a specific personality disorder. The accountant's fear of criticism points to Avoidant Personality Disorder. The archivist's lack of interest in others indicates Schizoid Personality Disorder. The student's excessive need for support aligns with Dependent Personality Disorder. The instructor's theatricality and attention-seeking indicate Histrionic Personality Disorder.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patients presenting with social withdrawal (the accountant versus the archivist) to determine the underlying motivation.
The accountant avoids socializing due to fear of rejection but desires connection, whereas the archivist genuinely prefers isolation and lacks interest in peers.
Differentiating ego-syntonic isolation (Cluster A) from ego-dystonic isolation (Cluster C) is a critical diagnostic step.
2
Evaluate the patient displaying excessive reliance on others (the graduate student).
The student exhibits an excessive need to be taken care of and an inability to make everyday decisions independently.
This behavioral pattern confirms a diagnosis of Dependent Personality Disorder.
3
Assess the patient with a dramatic, emotional presentation (the fitness instructor).
The instructor displays theatricality, attention-seeking behavior, and rapidly shifting emotions.
These are core diagnostic criteria for Histrionic Personality Disorder.

Key Concept

Distinguishing between personality disorders requires identifying the core motivations behind behaviors, such as differentiating the isolation seen in schizoid versus avoidant personality disorders.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 258Question →

A 27-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation is brought to the clinic by her partner due to worsening mood. Over the last four weeks, she has felt profoundly sad, lacks energy, and sleeps up to 14 hours a day. She expresses deep guilt and says she feels "empty." Her partner notes that during her second year of college, she experienced a distinct two-week period where she slept only three hours a night, spoke at an unusually rapid pace, and started three different business ventures that rapidly failed. That prior episode resolved without hospitalization. She currently takes a daily prenatal vitamin and an over-the-counter dextromethorphan syrup for a chronic post-viral cough. Vital signs are within normal limits. Recent laboratory testing shows a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 1.1 mU/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacologic management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate lurasidone

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to initiate lurasidone.
The correct answer involves initiating an atypical antipsychotic approved for bipolar depression. This patient is presenting with a major depressive episode, but her history of a distinct period with decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and impulsive goal-directed activity establishes an underlying diagnosis of bipolar disorder. In bipolar depression, traditional antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated. Lurasidone is a first-line, FDA-approved monotherapy for bipolar depression and possesses a favorable safety profile for use during pregnancy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the current symptom profile and duration.
The patient exhibits profound sadness, hypersomnia, anergia, and guilt lasting four weeks, which meets the criteria for a major depressive episode.
Establishing the current phase of the psychiatric illness is required to guide immediate management.
2
Analyze the patient's psychiatric history for prior mood episodes.
The history reveals a distinct two-week period of decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and increased goal-directed activity, indicating a past manic or hypomanic episode.
A history of mania or hypomania changes the diagnosis from unipolar major depressive disorder to bipolar disorder, fundamentally altering the treatment algorithm.
3
Review current medications and pregnancy status to select a safe intervention.
The patient is pregnant and taking dextromethorphan. Lurasidone is selected over antidepressants (to avoid manic switch) and MAOIs (to avoid serotonin syndrome with dextromethorphan).
Lurasidone is an FDA-approved, first-line agent for bipolar depression with registry data supporting its relative safety during pregnancy.

Key Concept

Discriminating bipolar depression from unipolar depression and selecting appropriate pharmacotherapy
Question 259Question →

A 28-year-old man presents to the outpatient psychiatric clinic complaining of severe "panic attacks" and insomnia. For the past 8 months, he has experienced sudden surges of intense fear accompanied by tachycardia, diaphoresis, and a feeling of impending doom. These episodes are frequently triggered by loud noises or when he attempts to fall asleep. During these episodes, he reports "zoning out" and vividly hearing the screeching of tires and feeling the impact of a vehicle, reliving a severe car accident he survived 8 months ago in which his fiancée was killed. He has since refused to ride in any motor vehicles, walking 3 miles to work every day. He notes that 3 years ago, he experienced a distinct 4-week period where he required only 2 hours of sleep per night, believed he had been chosen by God to solve world hunger, and maxed out multiple credit cards to start a charity. This behavior led to a brief psychiatric hospitalization, but he stopped taking his prescribed medications shortly after discharge. He is currently taking no medications. Vital signs, physical examination, and laboratory studies are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate valproate and trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to initiate a mood stabilizer (such as valproate) and trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy.
The correct approach for a patient presenting with active Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) and a clear history of Bipolar I Disorder (evidenced by his prior hospitalization for severe mania) is to initiate a mood stabilizer alongside an evidence-based psychotherapy. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (TF-CBT) is the gold standard for PTSD and carries no risk of mood destabilization. Concurrently, valproate provides necessary mood stabilization to prevent future manic episodes and establishes a safe baseline should pharmacological PTSD treatments become necessary later.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the current presenting symptom cluster.
The patient meets criteria for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD).
He has a history of severe trauma (>1 month ago), intrusive symptoms (dissociative flashbacks), avoidance (refusing to ride in cars), and hyperarousal (insomnia, panic-like surges).
2
Analyze the patient's psychiatric history.
The patient has a definitive history of Bipolar I Disorder.
He previously experienced a 4-week episode of decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, and reckless spending that required psychiatric hospitalization (a classic manic episode).
3
Evaluate treatment options for comorbid PTSD and Bipolar I Disorder.
Antidepressant monotherapy must be avoided.
Using an SSRI or SNRI without a concurrent mood stabilizer in a patient with Bipolar I Disorder carries a high risk of inducing a severe manic episode (manic switch).
4
Select the safest comprehensive management plan.
Initiate a mood stabilizer and trauma-focused psychotherapy.
Valproate stabilizes the underlying bipolar disorder, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy provides gold-standard, non-pharmacologic treatment for the PTSD symptoms.

Key Concept

Management of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) with comorbid Bipolar Disorder
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 260Question →

Match each depressive disorder or specifier with its most characteristic clinical presentation.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Major depressive disorder with atypical features
Major depressive disorder with melancholic features
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)
Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Major depressive disorder with atypical features matches with mood reactivity, hyperphagia, and hypersomnia. Major depressive disorder with melancholic features matches with pervasive anhedonia, early morning awakening, and weight loss. Persistent depressive disorder matches with chronic depressed mood for at least 2 years. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder matches with symptoms occurring in the luteal phase.
Matching depressive disorders to their classic criteria requires recognizing pathognomonic symptom clusters. Atypical features present with mood reactivity and 'reversed' vegetative symptoms (hyperphagia, hypersomnia). Melancholic features present with profound anhedonia and classic vegetative symptoms (insomnia, weight loss). Persistent depressive disorder is defined by chronicity (at least 2 years). Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is defined by its relation to the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the clinical description for mood reactivity combined with reversed vegetative symptoms (increased sleep and appetite).
Identified as atypical features.
These are the classic DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for the 'with atypical features' specifier of major depressive disorder.
2
Evaluate the clinical description for complete anhedonia, unreactive mood, and classic vegetative symptoms like early morning awakening.
Identified as melancholic features.
These severe symptoms define the melancholic specifier, separating it from typical or atypical presentations.
3
Evaluate the clinical description regarding the chronicity of the depressed mood.
A duration of 2 years or more without a 2-month gap identifies persistent depressive disorder.
The 2-year timeline is the core defining diagnostic criterion for persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) in adults.
4
Evaluate the clinical description for mood symptoms strictly tied to the menstrual cycle.
Symptoms restricted to the luteal phase identify premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
The cyclic nature of severe mood symptoms correlating with the luteal phase and resolving with menses is the hallmark of this disorder.

Key Concept

Identifying subtypes and specifiers of depressive disorders based on their distinct clinical criteria
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