Psychiatry

814 questions

Question 281Question →

A 41-year-old chef is brought to the outpatient clinic by his business partner due to a severe decline in functioning over the past six weeks. The patient describes a pervasive feeling of emptiness, increased appetite, and sleeping up to 12 hours daily. He also reports occasionally hearing a voice telling him he is a 'complete failure.' He has stopped going to the restaurant and avoids social contact. The business partner notes that four years ago, the patient had a distinctly different episode lasting three weeks during which he slept only three hours a night, talked incessantly, and maxed out multiple credit cards to launch an ill-advised catering business. The patient takes no medications and has no other medical conditions. Vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate quetiapine

Answer

The most appropriate next step in management is to initiate quetiapine.
This patient's current presentation of severe depressed mood, hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and mood-congruent auditory hallucinations lasting six weeks constitutes a major depressive episode with psychotic features. Crucially, his history reveals a distinct 3-week period of decreased sleep, pressured speech, and impulsive spending, which fulfills the criteria for a past manic episode. The presence of at least one manic episode in a patient's lifetime establishes the diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder. The most appropriate pharmacological treatment for acute bipolar depression includes select second-generation antipsychotics (such as quetiapine, lurasidone, or cariprazine) or a combination of olanzapine and fluoxetine. Quetiapine is highly effective as monotherapy for bipolar depression and will additionally target the patient's psychotic symptoms.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the current clinical presentation to determine the mood state.
The 6-week history of severe low mood, hyperphagia, hypersomnia, and mood-congruent auditory hallucinations meets criteria for a Major Depressive Episode with psychotic features.
Identifying the current phase of illness is the first step in psychiatric diagnosis and management.
2
Review the psychiatric history for evidence of previous mood episodes.
The patient experienced a 3-week episode four years ago involving decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and impulsivity, which meets the criteria for a Manic Episode.
A history of mania completely alters the diagnosis from unipolar depression to a bipolar spectrum disorder.
3
Synthesize the findings to establish the definitive diagnosis.
The combination of a past manic episode and a current major depressive episode confirms a diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder, current episode depressed.
Accurate diagnosis is crucial because treatments for unipolar depression can worsen bipolar disorder.
4
Select the most appropriate pharmacotherapy based on the diagnosis.
Quetiapine is selected as it is a first-line monotherapy for acute bipolar depression and effectively treats psychotic features.
Antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated in bipolar disorder, making second-generation antipsychotics or specific mood stabilizers the preferred approach.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with a major depressive episode must be carefully screened for a history of mania, as the diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder fundamentally changes management. First-line treatment for acute bipolar depression includes second-generation antipsychotics like quetiapine or lurasidone, whereas antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 282Question →

A 28-year-old woman presents to the psychiatry clinic with a 4-month history of recurrent, unexpected episodes of intense fear. These episodes are accompanied by palpitations, sweating, shortness of breath, and a feeling of impending doom. She constantly worries about having another episode and has started avoiding public transportation as a result. Her past medical history is significant for bipolar I disorder, but she discontinued all her psychiatric medications 2 years ago against medical advice and currently takes no medications. The physician and patient are discussing treatment options for her current symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate cognitive-behavioral therapy

Answer

Initiate cognitive-behavioral therapy
The correct answer identifies that cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a first-line treatment for panic disorder. In a patient with unmedicated bipolar I disorder, CBT is particularly appropriate because it avoids the pharmacological risks associated with antidepressants, specifically the risk of triggering a manic episode.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary diagnosis based on the clinical presentation.
Panic disorder with agoraphobia.
The patient has recurrent, unexpected panic attacks followed by persistent worry and avoidance behaviors.
2
Identify relevant past medical history that affects treatment.
Unmedicated bipolar I disorder.
The patient stopped her mood stabilizers 2 years ago, leaving her vulnerable to mood destabilization.
3
Determine the safest and most effective first-line treatment for the primary diagnosis given the comorbidities.
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT).
CBT is a first-line treatment for panic disorder and carries no risk of inducing a manic episode, unlike antidepressant monotherapy.

Key Concept

First-line management of panic disorder in a patient with unmedicated bipolar disorder is psychotherapy (CBT) to avoid the risk of antidepressant-induced mania.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 283Question →

For each of the following patient scenarios involving depressive symptoms or related disorders, select the most appropriate targeted pharmacotherapy or management step.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

An elderly male patient exhibits severe psychomotor retardation, active delusions of his internal organs rotting, and life-threatening dehydration due to a complete refusal to eat or drink.
A young adult female seeks help for severe low mood and anhedonia. A review of her psychiatric history confirms a distinct past period of inflated self-esteem, hypersexuality, and going days without sleep.
A middle-aged male with unipolar depression reports significant residual hypersomnia, cognitive sluggishness, and fatigue despite a partial mood response to eight weeks of maximum-dose sertraline.
A postmenopausal female patient is evaluated for low mood, anhedonia, and worthlessness. She also suffers from painful diabetic neuropathy and frequent episodes of stress urinary incontinence.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Match the medically compromised patient with psychotic depression to urgent ECT; the patient with bipolar depression to lurasidone; the patient with residual fatigue on SSRIs to bupropion augmentation; and the patient with comorbid neuropathy and stress incontinence to duloxetine.
Each clinical presentation requires a highly specific targeted intervention based on comorbidities, symptom profile, and medical urgency. Psychotic depression with inanition requires immediate ECT. Bipolar depression requires an atypical antipsychotic approved for that phase (like lurasidone). Residual fatigue on an SSRI benefits from NDRI augmentation (bupropion). MDD with neuropathic pain and stress incontinence is optimally treated with a dual-acting SNRI like duloxetine.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the elderly male patient with delusions and dehydration.
Diagnosis is Major Depressive Disorder with psychotic features and life-threatening inanition.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is the gold standard and most rapid treatment for severe depression complicated by psychosis and acute medical compromise, bypassing the delayed onset of pharmacotherapy.
2
Evaluate the young adult female with severe low mood and a past history of hypersexuality/decreased sleep.
Diagnosis is Bipolar I Disorder, currently in a depressive episode.
Standard antidepressant monotherapy (like SSRIs) is contraindicated. Lurasidone is an FDA-approved first-line agent specifically indicated for bipolar depression.
3
Evaluate the middle-aged male with residual fatigue and hypersomnia despite SSRI therapy.
The patient has a partial response to sertraline but suffers from residual amotivational and fatigue symptoms.
Bupropion, an activating NDRI, is the ideal augmentation strategy to target fatigue, poor concentration, and hypersomnia without causing weight gain or sexual dysfunction.
4
Evaluate the postmenopausal female with low mood, neuropathy, and stress incontinence.
Diagnosis is Major Depressive Disorder with comorbid diabetic peripheral neuropathy and stress urinary incontinence.
Duloxetine, an SNRI, treats the core depressive symptoms while also being formally indicated for neuropathic pain and demonstrating off-label efficacy in reducing stress urinary incontinence via increased urethral sphincter tone.

Key Concept

Selecting the most appropriate pharmacological or procedural intervention for complex depressive disorders based on comorbidities, prior treatment response, and acute medical urgency.
Question 284Question →

Match each clinical vignette with the most appropriate personality disorder diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 45-year-old physician demands a dedicated parking spot, frequently belittles nursing staff for 'lacking intellectual depth,' and reacts with explosive rage when patients request a second opinion.
A 32-year-old manager refuses to delegate tasks because others 'cannot do them correctly,' frequently misses deadlines due to endless formatting revisions, and rigidly adheres to scheduling rules.
A 50-year-old engineer repeatedly files HR grievances claiming baseless sabotage by colleagues, meticulously guards personal information, and constantly questions the loyalty of his team without exhibiting bizarre delusions.
A 26-year-old artist uses idiosyncratic phrasing, believes he possesses a 'sixth sense' to read emotional auras, and has severe social anxiety that remains intense despite prolonged familiarity with peers.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The 45-year-old physician matches Narcissistic personality disorder. The 32-year-old manager matches Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. The 50-year-old engineer matches Paranoid personality disorder. The 26-year-old artist matches Schizotypal personality disorder.
Each vignette represents a distinct personality disorder characterized by pervasive, inflexible, and maladaptive patterns of behavior. The physician demonstrates Narcissistic PD through grandiosity and entitlement. The manager demonstrates OCPD through rigid perfectionism. The engineer demonstrates Paranoid PD through unwarranted suspiciousness. The artist demonstrates Schizotypal PD through magical thinking and eccentric behavior.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first vignette for core interpersonal dynamics.
Identifies grandiosity, entitlement, lack of empathy, and hypersensitivity to criticism (narcissistic injury).
These are the diagnostic criteria for Narcissistic personality disorder (Cluster B).
2
Evaluate the second vignette's focus on work and rules.
Identifies rigid perfectionism, reluctance to delegate, and over-devotion to work at the expense of efficiency.
These features define Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (Cluster C), which is ego-syntonic unlike OCD.
3
Assess the third vignette for psychotic versus personality disorder features.
Identifies pervasive distrust, guardedness, and interpreting motives as malevolent, but specifically notes the absence of bizarre delusions.
This rules out psychotic disorders and confirms Paranoid personality disorder (Cluster A).
4
Examine the fourth vignette for oddities in thought and behavior.
Identifies magical thinking (sixth sense), odd speech, and paranoid social anxiety that does not habituate.
These are the classic cognitive and perceptual distortions characteristic of Schizotypal personality disorder (Cluster A).

Key Concept

Differentiating personality disorders based on core clinical features, defense mechanisms, and interpersonal deficits across Clusters A, B, and C.
Question 285Question →

A 55-year-old man is recovering on the telemetry floor following a myocardial infarction. Throughout his hospitalization, he has been meticulously recording his vital signs, fluid intake, and medication administration times in a personal notebook. He frequently argues with the nursing staff, insisting that his medications be given at the exact minute they are scheduled, rather than within the hospital's standard 30-minute administration window. When the attending physician suggests a minor adjustment to his cardiac rehabilitation plan, the patient becomes visibly anxious, stating that they must stick to the 'original protocol,' and demands to read the primary research articles supporting the change. His wife notes that his need for order and perfectionism has caused significant strain in their marriage, as he insists household tasks be done 'exactly his way.' Which of the following represent appropriate management strategies for this patient's underlying personality structure while he is hospitalized? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Provide detailed, logical explanations and share relevant medical data when adjusting the treatment plan; Avoid power struggles by accommodating the patient's rigid routines when they do not compromise medical safety

Answer

The appropriate management strategies involve providing detailed, logical explanations when adjusting the treatment plan and avoiding power struggles by accommodating the patient's rigid routines when medically safe.
The patient's presentation of extreme perfectionism, rigidity, need for interpersonal control, and ego-syntonic behavior (believing his way is the 'right way') points to Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD). When treating patients with OCPD in a general medical setting, physicians can optimize the therapeutic alliance by appealing to their intellectualization. Providing detailed, logical explanations and sharing relevant medical data gives them a sense of control and respect for their intellect. Furthermore, accommodating their rigid routines—as long as patient safety is not compromised—prevents counterproductive power struggles and reduces the patient's underlying anxiety about losing control.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric diagnosis based on the clinical vignette.
The patient's pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental/interpersonal control is characteristic of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD).
Recognizing the ego-syntonic nature of his rigidity and perfectionism helps differentiate OCPD from other psychiatric conditions like OCD.
2
Determine the optimal communication and management strategy for a patient with OCPD in a medical setting.
Providing detailed explanations and scientific rationale should be prioritized.
Patients with OCPD frequently use intellectualization as a defense mechanism; offering data appeals to this defense and helps them feel a sense of control.
3
Assess how to handle the patient's rigid demands on the nursing staff.
The clinical team should accommodate minor, harmless requests for routine and avoid direct confrontation.
Directly challenging the patient's rigidity will likely increase anxiety and provoke a power struggle, whereas accommodating safe preferences fosters a collaborative therapeutic alliance.

Key Concept

The management of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD) in medical settings involves utilizing the patient's intellectualization by providing detailed explanations and avoiding unnecessary power struggles over harmless rigid routines.
Question 286Question →

A 32-year-old woman is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for a 1-month history of severe depressed mood, hypersomnia, profound fatigue, and passive suicidal ideation. She has no formal psychiatric history. However, upon further questioning, the patient's husband reports that during her college years, she had a distinct 3-week period where she slept only 33 hours per night, spoke so rapidly she was difficult to understand, claimed she was "chosen by God to solve world hunger," and drained her savings account. Her medical history is significant for essential hypertension and obesity. Current medications include hydrochlorothiazide and a multivitamin. Her BMI is 34 kg/m234 \text{ kg/m}^2. Vital signs are temperature 37.0∘C37.0^\circ\text{C} (98.6∘F98.6^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure 128/82 mm Hg128/82 \text{ mm Hg}, and heart rate 78/min78\text{/min}. Physical examination is unremarkable. Recent fasting laboratory results show a blood glucose of 124 mg/dL124 \text{ mg/dL} and hemoglobin A1c of 6.2%6.2\%. Mental status examination reveals psychomotor retardation, blunted affect, and a depressed mood. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient's current episode?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Lurasidone

Answer

Lurasidone is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient's acute bipolar depression, given her metabolic comorbidities and concurrent use of hydrochlorothiazide.
The most appropriate pharmacotherapy is an atypical antipsychotic approved for bipolar depression that minimizes harm given the patient's comorbidities. Lurasidone fits this profile perfectly as it is highly effective for bipolar depression and is metabolically neutral, making it safe for her prediabetes and obesity. Furthermore, it avoids the severe drug-drug interaction present between lithium and her blood pressure medication (hydrochlorothiazide).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Diagnose the underlying psychiatric condition based on the patient's history.
The patient has Bipolar I Disorder.
The patient is currently in a major depressive episode but has a history of a distinct 3-week period of grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and reckless behavior, which meets the full criteria for a manic episode (requires >1 week).
2
Identify the current clinical phase requiring treatment.
Acute bipolar depression.
The patient presents with a 1-month history of severe depressed mood, hypersomnia, and suicidal ideation.
3
Rule out contraindicated medication classes.
Exclude antidepressant monotherapy (Escitalopram).
Antidepressant monotherapy in Bipolar I Disorder carries a significant risk of inducing a manic switch or rapid cycling.
4
Evaluate first-line options for bipolar depression against the patient's current medication list.
Exclude Lithium carbonate.
The patient is taking hydrochlorothiazide. Thiazide diuretics significantly decrease the renal clearance of lithium, creating a high risk for life-threatening lithium toxicity.
5
Evaluate the remaining options against the patient's medical comorbidities.
Exclude Quetiapine in favor of Lurasidone.
The patient has obesity (BMI 34 kg/m234 \text{ kg/m}^2) and prediabetes (HbA1c 6.2%6.2\%). Quetiapine has high metabolic liability, whereas lurasidone is metabolically neutral and FDA-approved for bipolar depression.

Key Concept

Management of acute bipolar depression requires avoiding antidepressant monotherapy to prevent manic switch, and selecting mood stabilizers or atypical antipsychotics based on patient-specific comorbidities and drug interactions (e.g., avoiding lithium with thiazides, avoiding quetiapine in metabolic syndrome).
Question 287Question →

A 28-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic seeking treatment for heroin addiction. She states that her last heroin use was approximately 18 hours ago. She currently complains of severe muscle aches, abdominal cramps, and anxiety. On physical examination, she exhibits rhinorrhea, piloerection, and pupillary dilation. The physician plans to initiate treatment with buprenorphine-naloxone. Arrange the following steps in the most appropriate sequential order for the comprehensive management of this patient's opioid use disorder, from immediate acute presentation to long-term care.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is: Assessment of withdrawal severity, followed by Induction with buprenorphine-naloxone, followed by Titration to an effective maintenance dose, and finally Integration of long-term psychosocial support.
The appropriate management of opioid use disorder begins with an objective assessment of withdrawal severity (e.g., using the Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale). Because buprenorphine is a partial mu-opioid agonist with high affinity, administering it too early can precipitate severe withdrawal. Once moderate withdrawal is confirmed, induction with buprenorphine-naloxone is performed. Over the next few days, the dose is titrated to a steady maintenance level that suppresses cravings. Finally, for the highest chance of sustained remission, pharmacological maintenance is combined with long-term behavioral counseling.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Quantify the severity of acute opioid withdrawal.
Objective confirmation that the patient is in moderate to severe withdrawal.
Buprenorphine is a partial mu-opioid agonist. Administering it while full agonists are still occupying receptors can precipitate severe withdrawal.
2
Induce with buprenorphine-naloxone.
Relief of acute withdrawal symptoms.
Once appropriate withdrawal severity is confirmed, the initial dose safely displaces any remaining full agonists and begins treating the withdrawal syndrome.
3
Titrate the medication to a maintenance dose.
Achieve a stable maintenance dose that prevents relapse.
The dose must be carefully adjusted over subsequent days to ensure cravings are completely suppressed.
4
Provide long-term psychosocial support.
Long-term relapse prevention and behavioral modification.
Pharmacotherapy combined with behavioral counseling yields the highest rates of sustained recovery in opioid use disorder.

Key Concept

The clinical sequence for Opioid Use Disorder management using buprenorphine requires assessing for moderate withdrawal prior to induction to avoid precipitated withdrawal, followed by dose stabilization and long-term counseling.
Question 288Question →

A 30-year-old man presents to the clinic reporting a 4-week history of persistent sadness, sleeping 12 hours a day, and lacking energy to do his usual activities. He mentions having a history of a distinct 10-day period during his college years when he felt "on top of the world," had racing thoughts, and stayed awake for days working on multiple projects without feeling tired. His only current medication is lisinopril for mild hypertension. A thyroid panel performed last week showed a TSH of 2.1 µU/mL (normal: 0.5-5.0 µU/mL) and a normal free T4. The physician is evaluating pharmacological treatment options. Which of the following statements regarding the management of this patient is most accurate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Prescribing escitalopram monotherapy carries a high risk of precipitating a manic episode.

Answer

Prescribing escitalopram monotherapy carries a high risk of precipitating a manic episode.
The patient is currently experiencing a major depressive episode but has a definitive history of a manic episode (a 10-day period of feeling 'on top of the world', racing thoughts, and decreased need for sleep). This history establishes a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder. When treating bipolar depression, antidepressant monotherapy (such as escitalopram) is strongly contraindicated because it carries a high risk of precipitating a manic or hypomanic switch. The standard of care involves using a mood stabilizer or an atypical antipsychotic approved for bipolar depression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the current symptom profile.
The patient has depressed mood, hypersomnia, and anergia lasting for 4 weeks.
Establishing the current syndrome (major depressive episode) is the first step in diagnosis.
2
Analyze the past psychiatric history.
The patient describes a 10-day period of elevated mood, racing thoughts, and decreased need for sleep.
This history clearly meets the diagnostic criteria for a manic episode, changing the primary diagnosis from Major Depressive Disorder to Bipolar I Disorder.
3
Determine the appropriate pharmacological approach and associated risks.
Antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated.
In patients with underlying bipolar disorder, using an SSRI without a mood stabilizer carries a severe risk of inducing a manic switch.

Key Concept

Screening for a history of manic or hypomanic episodes is a critical step in evaluating any patient with depressive symptoms, as antidepressant monotherapy can precipitate mania in patients with underlying bipolar disorder.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 289Question →

A 34-year-old architect is brought to the emergency department by his spouse due to increasingly erratic behavior. For the past week, he has slept only two hours per night, stating he feels "more energized than ever." He has maxed out multiple credit cards purchasing expensive aviation parts to build a "revolutionary flying vehicle" in his garage. On examination, he paces around the room continuously, and his speech is so rapid and pressured that it is difficult to interrupt. His spouse reports that three weeks ago, the patient visited his primary care provider for profound sadness, hypersomnia, and anhedonia that had persisted for a month. At that visit, he was diagnosed with a psychiatric condition and started on a new daily medication. Which of the following actions by the primary care provider prior to initiating this medication would most likely have prevented the patient's current presentation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Obtaining a detailed history regarding past episodes of decreased need for sleep and increased goal-directed activity

Answer

Obtaining a detailed history regarding past episodes of decreased need for sleep and increased goal-directed activity
The patient is experiencing an acute manic episode, characterized by a decreased need for sleep, rapid and pressured speech, grandiosity (building a "revolutionary flying vehicle"), and excessive involvement in activities with high potential for painful consequences (maxing out credit cards). This episode was highly likely precipitated by the medication he received three weeks ago for his depressive symptoms—most probably an antidepressant. When a patient presents with a major depressive episode, it is critical to differentiate unipolar major depressive disorder from bipolar depression. Antidepressant monotherapy in a patient with bipolar disorder carries a significant risk of inducing a manic switch. Therefore, the primary care provider should have screened the patient for a history of hypomanic or manic episodes (e.g., periods of decreased need for sleep, increased goal-directed activity, racing thoughts) prior to prescribing the antidepressant.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current clinical presentation.
The patient exhibits a decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, increased goal-directed activity, and pressured speech for one week, which meets the criteria for a manic episode.
Identifying the current syndrome is necessary to understand the adverse outcome of the prior treatment.
2
Connect the current manic episode to the recent medical history.
The manic episode began shortly after the initiation of a new medication for a major depressive episode, strongly suggesting an antidepressant-induced manic switch.
Establishing the etiology of the mania points directly to the management error made during the previous clinic visit.
3
Determine the appropriate preventative clinical action for patients presenting with depression.
Before prescribing antidepressant monotherapy, clinicians must screen for a history of mania or hypomania to rule out bipolar disorder.
Antidepressants can precipitate mania in patients with unrecognized bipolar disorder; identifying this diathesis prevents the inappropriate use of antidepressant monotherapy.

Key Concept

All patients presenting with a major depressive episode must be carefully screened for a past history of manic or hypomanic episodes prior to initiating antidepressant therapy to prevent an antidepressant-induced manic switch.
Question 290Question →

A 28-year-old male is evaluated in an ambulatory clinic for a 4-week history of persistent sadness, hypersomnia, profound fatigue, and poor concentration. He reports struggling to get out of bed in the morning and has missed multiple days of work as an accountant. His medical history is significant for occasional migraines, for which he takes sumatriptan as needed. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 2.1 µU/mL (normal: 0.5-5.0 µU/mL). Upon further questioning, the patient describes a distinct two-week period three years ago when he felt "on top of the world," required only two hours of sleep per night, spoke very rapidly, and successfully renovated his entire house by himself without feeling tired. He was not hospitalized during that time. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient's current condition?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Quetiapine

Answer

Quetiapine
The patient's clinical picture of a current major depressive episode combined with a clear history of a prior manic episode (elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, increased goal-directed activity lasting at least one week) establishes the diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder, current episode depressed. The standard of care for acute bipolar depression includes specific second-generation antipsychotics such as quetiapine or lurasidone, or mood stabilizers like lithium. Quetiapine effectively targets the depressive symptoms while protecting against a manic switch.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the current presentation
The patient has 4 weeks of sadness, hypersomnia, fatigue, and poor concentration, which meets the criteria for a major depressive episode.
Establishing the current affective state is required to guide immediate therapy.
2
Evaluate past psychiatric history
The patient had a 2-week episode of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, increased goal-directed activity, and rapid speech 3 years ago, meeting the criteria for a manic episode.
A past manic episode changes the diagnosis from major depressive disorder to bipolar I disorder.
3
Select the appropriate pharmacotherapy
Quetiapine is chosen as the next best step.
First-line therapies for bipolar depression include quetiapine, lurasidone, and lithium, as they treat depression without significant risk of inducing a manic switch.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with depressive symptoms must be screened for past manic or hypomanic episodes; if a history of mania is present (Bipolar I disorder), standard antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated due to the risk of inducing a manic switch, and agents like quetiapine or lurasidone should be used instead.
Question 291Question →

A 3-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents due to concerns about his speech and behavior. He has a vocabulary of only 5 to 10 words and does not use two-word phrases. The parents report that he rarely makes eye contact and does not point to objects to share interest. He prefers to play alone and spends hours lining up his toy cars in a specific order. If the cars are moved by someone else, he becomes extremely agitated and cries inconsolably. His motor development is age-appropriate; he runs well, walks up stairs, and feeds himself with a spoon. A recent audiometry evaluation showed normal hearing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Autism spectrum disorder

Answer

Autism spectrum disorder
The correct answer is autism spectrum disorder because the patient clearly demonstrates the two mandatory diagnostic domains: (1) deficits in social communication and social interaction (evidenced by severely delayed speech, lack of eye contact, and failure to point or share interest), and (2) restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior (evidenced by lining up toy cars and exhibiting extreme distress when the routine is disrupted). The presentation in early childhood and the functional impairment further support this diagnosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's language and social milestones.
The patient has significantly delayed speech for a 3-year-old (normal is >200 words and short sentences) and lacks joint attention (no pointing or eye contact).
This identifies core deficits in social communication and interaction.
2
Analyze the patient's behavior and play patterns.
The patient spends hours lining up toys and exhibits extreme distress with minor changes in routine.
This identifies the presence of restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior.
3
Rule out alternative causes for the presentation.
Hearing is normal (ruling out deafness as a cause for speech delay) and motor milestones are intact (ruling out global developmental delay).
Ensures the symptoms are not better explained by other developmental or physical anomalies.
4
Synthesize the clinical findings.
The combination of social communication deficits and restricted, repetitive behaviors confirms the diagnosis.
These represent the two core diagnostic domains required for autism spectrum disorder.

Key Concept

The diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) requires two core features: deficits in social communication and interaction, and the presence of restricted, repetitive behaviors, interests, or activities.
Question 292Question →

A medical student on a psychiatry clerkship is reviewing the adverse effect profiles and monitoring requirements for various psychotropic medications used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. Match each medication below with its most characteristic adverse effect profile and required monitoring parameters.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Lithium
Valproate
Lamotrigine
Olanzapine

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Lithium pairs with thyroid, renal, and cardiac teratogenic risks. Valproate pairs with hepatic, pancreatic, and hematologic risks. Lamotrigine pairs with severe rash risk. Olanzapine pairs with high metabolic syndrome risk.
Each medication used in the maintenance phase of bipolar disorder has a distinct side effect profile that dictates specific baseline and ongoing clinical monitoring. Lithium requires monitoring of TSH, renal function, and pregnancy status. Valproate requires monitoring of LFTs, CBC, and clinical signs of pancreatitis. Lamotrigine is monitored clinically for the emergence of rash. Olanzapine requires extensive metabolic monitoring, including BMI, fasting glucose, and lipid panels.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the distinct adverse effects of Lithium.
Matches the profile describing hypothyroidism, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and Ebstein anomaly.
Lithium affects renal aquaporin channels and thyroid hormone synthesis, and it is a known cardiac teratogen.
2
Identify the distinct adverse effects of Valproate.
Matches the profile describing hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and neural tube defects.
Valproate is metabolized in the liver, can suppress bone marrow, and interferes with folate metabolism.
3
Identify the distinct adverse effects of Lamotrigine.
Matches the profile describing a severe dermatologic reaction and the need for slow titration.
Rapid dose escalation of lamotrigine significantly increases the risk of Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
4
Identify the distinct adverse effects of Olanzapine.
Matches the profile describing a high risk of metabolic syndrome and the need for glucose/lipid monitoring.
Second-generation antipsychotics, particularly olanzapine and clozapine, are highly associated with weight gain and insulin resistance.

Key Concept

Pharmacologic Adverse Effects and Monitoring in Bipolar Disorder
Question 293Question →

Evaluate the following concise clinical presentations and match each patient's symptom profile with the most accurate DSM-5 psychiatric diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A young adult avoids airplanes and trains due to intense fears of being trapped if they experience a sudden, incapacitating medical emergency.
A patient has multiple recent emergency room visits for abrupt episodes of intense tachycardia and trembling, alongside ongoing dread of future episodes.
An executive reports nearly a year of debilitating muscle tension and pervasive apprehension regarding routine daily matters.
A student experiences marked depressed mood and impaired academic performance beginning eight weeks after a romantic breakup.
A trauma survivor reports vivid flashbacks, emotional numbing, and severe hypervigilance that have persisted for exactly three weeks since a violent robbery.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matches align the avoidance of entrapment to Agoraphobia, unexpected autonomic surges to Panic Disorder, chronic 12-month worry to Generalized Anxiety Disorder, post-breakup impairment to Adjustment Disorder, and 3-week post-trauma symptoms to Acute Stress Disorder.
Each vignette represents a classic presentation of a distinct disorder. The key differentiators are the specific nature of the feared situation (e.g., being trapped without help in agoraphobia vs. fearing the panic attacks themselves in panic disorder) and strict symptom duration (e.g., 3 weeks for acute stress disorder, >6 months for generalized anxiety disorder).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the core psychopathology and triggers for each presentation.
Identified triggers: situational entrapment, unexpected autonomic surges, chronic daily worry, non-life-threatening stressor, and life-threatening trauma.
Differentiation of psychiatric disorders begins with identifying the primary source of the distress or anxiety.
2
Evaluate the exact timeline of symptoms for the trauma and stress-related vignettes.
The trauma survivor has symptoms for 3 weeks (less than 1 month); the student developed symptoms 8 weeks (less than 3 months) after a breakup; the executive has symptoms for nearly a year (greater than 6 months).
Temporal criteria are strict distinguishing factors in DSM-5 guidelines.
3
Correlate the analyzed features with specific diagnostic categories.
The distinct clinical profiles accurately map one-to-one with Agoraphobia, Panic Disorder, Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Adjustment Disorder, and Acute Stress Disorder.
Ensures adherence to current psychiatric classification standards.

Key Concept

Differentiating anxiety and trauma-related disorders requires integrating the primary fear trigger with specific symptom duration thresholds.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 294Question →

Match each pediatric clinical vignette with the most likely neurodevelopmental diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 7-year-old boy with a 1-year history of excessive fidgeting, blurting out answers in class, and difficulty waiting his turn across both home and school settings.
A 4-year-old boy presenting with poor eye contact, delayed speech, repetitive stacking of blocks, and severe distress during routine transitions.
A 9-year-old boy with a 2-year history of recurrent facial grimacing, shoulder shrugging, and occasional involuntary throat clearing.
A 3-year-old girl who developed normally until 15 months of age, now presenting with loss of expressive language, repetitive hand-wringing movements, and ataxia.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matches align the pathognomonic behavioral and developmental features with their respective neurodevelopmental disorders.
Each vignette provides classic diagnostic criteria for the most common neurodevelopmental disorders tested on the USMLE. Recognizing these classic patterns is essential for rapid and accurate diagnosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each vignette for core developmental, behavioral, or motor abnormalities.
Identified hyperactivity (left_1), social/communication deficits (left_2), motor/vocal tics (left_3), and developmental regression in a female (left_4).
Identifying the primary symptom cluster narrows down the differential diagnosis in pediatric psychiatry.
2
Correlate identified symptom clusters with DSM-5 criteria.
Matched hyperactivity to ADHD, social deficits/repetitive behaviors to ASD, chronic tics to Tourette syndrome, and female regression with hand-wringing to Rett syndrome.
Direct application of diagnostic criteria ensures accurate diagnosis.

Key Concept

Clinical presentation of core childhood neurodevelopmental disorders
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 295Question →

Match each mood stabilizer commonly used in the management of bipolar disorder with its most characteristic adverse effect profile.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Lithium
Valproate
Lamotrigine
Carbamazepine

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Lithium matches with Hypothyroidism/tremor/NDI; Valproate matches with Hepatotoxicity/pancreatitis/neural tube defects; Lamotrigine matches with Rash/Stevens-Johnson syndrome; Carbamazepine matches with Hyponatremia/agranulocytosis/aplastic anemia.
Matching mood stabilizers to their adverse effects requires recognizing classic, high-yield toxicity profiles. Lithium is notorious for thyroid and renal effects (hypothyroidism, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus). Valproate classically causes hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, and neural tube defects. Lamotrigine is most feared for severe skin reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Carbamazepine is distinguished by its risk of blood dyscrasias (agranulocytosis) and hyponatremia from SIADH.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the characteristic adverse effects of Lithium.
Lithium is matched with hypothyroidism, fine tremor, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
Lithium accumulates in the thyroid gland and the kidneys, interfering with normal hormone production and renal concentrating ability.
2
Identify the characteristic adverse effects of Valproate.
Valproate is matched with hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, and neural tube defects.
Valproic acid exerts direct toxic effects on the liver and pancreas, and acts as a folate antagonist in utero, leading to neural tube closure defects.
3
Identify the characteristic adverse effects of Lamotrigine.
Lamotrigine is matched with benign maculopapular rash and Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
The primary dose-limiting toxicity of lamotrigine is a severe dermatologic reaction, necessitating very slow upward titration.
4
Identify the characteristic adverse effects of Carbamazepine.
Carbamazepine is matched with hyponatremia, agranulocytosis, and aplastic anemia.
Carbamazepine uniquely causes SIADH (leading to dilutional hyponatremia) and bone marrow suppression, requiring baseline and periodic blood count monitoring.

Key Concept

Adverse effect profiles and toxicity signs of primary mood stabilizers
Question 296Question →

A 42-year-old accountant is evaluated for a two-month history of pervasive sad mood, anhedonia, and poor concentration. He is seeking treatment for the first time. Arrange the following clinical steps in the standard chronological order they should be considered, starting with the initial evaluation and progressing through the escalation of care for increasingly treatment-resistant depression.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: 1) Screen for a prior history of manic or hypomanic episodes, 2) Initiate monotherapy with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, 3) Augment the regimen with a second-generation antipsychotic, 4) Refer for electroconvulsive therapy.
The standard approach to a new depressive episode requires first ruling out bipolar disorder by screening for past mania or hypomania. Once unipolar depression is established, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is the preferred first-line treatment. If the patient has a partial response despite an adequate trial and dose optimization, augmentation with an agent like a second-generation antipsychotic is indicated. Electroconvulsive therapy is generally reserved for severe, highly treatment-resistant depression that has not responded to multiple pharmacological interventions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Perform initial safety and diagnostic screening
Screen for a prior history of manic or hypomanic episodes
Administering an antidepressant without ruling out bipolar disorder can precipitate mania.
2
Select first-line therapy for unipolar depression
Initiate monotherapy with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
SSRIs have a favorable side effect profile and are the standard initial treatment for major depressive disorder.
3
Manage partial response to monotherapy
Augment the regimen with a second-generation antipsychotic
When dose optimization of an initial agent yields incomplete remission, adding an augmenting agent is appropriate.
4
Address severe, refractory depression
Refer for electroconvulsive therapy
ECT is highly efficacious and is utilized after multiple medication trials fail.

Key Concept

The stepped-care management of major depressive disorder begins with ruling out bipolar disorder, followed by initial SSRI monotherapy, subsequent augmentation for partial responders, and eventually ECT for severe, refractory cases.
Question 297Question →

A 42-year-old executive is diagnosed with severe Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) without psychotic features. Despite excellent medication adherence, the patient's symptoms prove progressively difficult to treat over several months. Arrange the following steps in the standard evidence-based sequence for the management and escalation of care for MDD, from initial presentation through to the management of severe treatment-resistant depression.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence begins with initiating a first-line monotherapy, followed by optimizing its dose and duration. If there is no response, switching to another monotherapy is indicated. If the new agent yields only a partial response, augmentation is utilized. Finally, ECT is reserved for refractory, treatment-resistant cases.
The pharmacological management of MDD follows a stepped-care approach to balance efficacy and tolerability. Treatment begins with an initial monotherapy (e.g., an SSRI) which must be optimized in dose and duration (4 to 8 weeks) before definitively assessing response. If there is a complete lack of response, switching to another first-line agent is preferred. If a subsequent trial yields a partial response, augmentation is indicated to push the patient toward full remission. Neuromodulation, such as ECT, is utilized for severe, treatment-resistant depression when multiple trials of optimized and augmented pharmacotherapy fail.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the standard first-line treatment for uncomplicated MDD.
Initiation of a first-line agent such as an SSRI.
First-line agents are preferred due to their favorable side-effect profiles and safety.
2
Determine the requirements for an adequate medication trial.
Titration to the maximum tolerated dose for 4-8 weeks.
Antidepressants require time to exert their full clinical effect; premature discontinuation leads to false treatment resistance.
3
Select the appropriate strategy for initial non-response.
Switch to a different monotherapy.
When a patient shows minimal or no response to an initial optimized trial, switching agents is generally preferred over augmentation.
4
Select the appropriate strategy for a subsequent partial response.
Augmentation with an atypical antipsychotic or lithium.
If a patient has a partial response, adding an adjunctive agent can push the patient toward full remission without losing the partial gains achieved.
5
Identify the treatment of last resort for non-psychotic, treatment-resistant depression.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
ECT is indicated when multiple trials of pharmacotherapy, including augmentation strategies, have failed.

Key Concept

Stepped-care management and escalation algorithm for Major Depressive Disorder
Question 298Question →

A 24-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to bizarre and erratic behavior over the past 3 weeks. He has barricaded himself in his bedroom, claiming that foreign intelligence agents have implanted a device in his head and are monitoring his thoughts. His parents report that he has slept less than 2 hours per night over this period and has been continuously pacing and speaking at a rapid pace. The patient has a history of major depressive disorder, for which he was started on citalopram 6 weeks ago. Vital signs are temperature 37.8°C (100.0°F), pulse 122/min, respirations 18/min, and blood pressure 162/98 mmHg. Physical examination reveals bilateral pupillary dilation, marked diaphoresis, and multiple linear excoriations on his face and forearms. Neurologic examination reveals normal muscle tone and absent clonus. Routine urine toxicology screen results are pending. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Substance/medication-induced psychotic disorder

Answer

Substance/medication-induced psychotic disorder
The correct diagnosis is substance/medication-induced psychotic disorder. This patient's presentation of acute paranoia, delusions, rapid speech, and decreased need for sleep must be interpreted in the context of his physical examination. The presence of significant sympathetic overactivity (tachycardia, hypertension, bilateral pupillary dilation, marked diaphoresis) combined with multiple linear excoriations on his face and forearms is classic for methamphetamine intoxication. The excoriations ('meth sores') result from chronic skin picking due to tactile hallucinations of bugs crawling under the skin (formication). Because the psychotic symptoms are the direct physiological consequence of substance intoxication, a primary psychotic or mood disorder cannot be diagnosed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's psychiatric symptoms and timeline.
The patient has a 3-week history of acute paranoia, delusions, decreased need for sleep, and rapid speech.
To establish the primary psychiatric differential, which includes mania, primary psychosis, or a substance-induced etiology.
2
Evaluate the patient's physical examination and vital signs.
The patient exhibits a sympathomimetic toxidrome (tachycardia, hypertension, mydriasis, diaphoresis) along with skin excoriations and normal muscle tone.
To identify physiologic clues that distinguish a medical or toxicological cause from a primary psychiatric disorder.
3
Synthesize the findings to reach a definitive diagnosis.
The combination of severe sympathetic overactivity, formication (excoriations), and acute psychosis in the absence of neuromuscular rigidity points to methamphetamine intoxication rather than SSRI-induced mania or serotonin syndrome.
To accurately rule out competing diagnoses and confirm that the psychosis is secondary to a substance.

Key Concept

Substance-induced psychotic disorder must be differentiated from primary psychotic and mood disorders by recognizing the associated toxidrome (e.g., sympathetic overactivity and formication in methamphetamine use).
Question 299Question →

A 42-year-old man presents to the clinic reporting persistent, overwhelming anxiety. For the past 8 months, he has worried excessively about his job security, finances, and family health. He describes feeling constantly 'on edge,' tires easily, and has severe muscle tension in his neck and shoulders. His medical history is significant for treatment-resistant major depressive disorder, for which he has been taking the monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) tranylcypromine for the past year with excellent symptom control. Vital signs are within normal limits. The physician diagnoses generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and discusses pharmacological treatment options. Which of the following medications can be safely initiated for his GAD without precipitating a life-threatening drug-drug interaction? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Clonazepam; Hydroxyzine

Answer

Clonazepam and Hydroxyzine
The correct options are clonazepam and hydroxyzine. When treating anxiety in a patient currently taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) like tranylcypromine, it is critical to avoid any agents that increase serotonergic or noradrenergic transmission. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts via GABA-A receptor modulation, and hydroxyzine is a histamine H1 receptor antagonist. Neither medication significantly increases serotonin levels, making them safe to co-administer with an MAOI without risking serotonin syndrome or a hypertensive crisis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's current psychiatric medication.
The patient is taking tranylcypromine, which is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI).
Knowing the current medication is essential to screen for potential drug-drug interactions when starting a new therapy.
2
Recall the absolute contraindications for patients taking MAOIs.
MAOIs cannot be co-administered with serotonergic agents (SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, buspirone) due to the risk of serotonin syndrome or hypertensive crisis.
This pathophysiological rule helps eliminate unsafe pharmacological options.
3
Evaluate the safety of the given options based on their mechanism of action.
Escitalopram, venlafaxine, and buspirone interact dangerously with MAOIs. Clonazepam (a GABA-A modulator) and hydroxyzine (a histamine H1 antagonist) lack serotonergic activity and are safe.
To arrive at the final correct set of safe medications for this patient.

Key Concept

Pharmacological management of anxiety in patients taking MAOIs requires strictly avoiding serotonergic agents to prevent serotonin syndrome.
Question 300Question →

A 4242-year-old male construction manager presents to the clinic accompanied by his wife. He reports a 66-week history of feeling "completely hollow," sleeping up to 1414 hours a day, having a ravenous appetite, and experiencing severe heavy feelings in his arms and legs. He has gained 77 kg (15.415.4 lbs) during this period. Review of his medical history reveals an incident four years ago where he went 88 days sleeping only 22 hours a night, became convinced he was chosen by a deity to build a new city, and spent 40,00040,000 dollars of his savings on barren land. This episode resulted in an involuntary psychiatric hospitalization. He stopped taking all prescribed medications three years ago. His vital signs are normal, and a recent comprehensive metabolic panel and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 2.22.2 μ\mu U/mL (normal: 0.40.4-4.04.0 μ\mu U/mL) are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy for this patient's current presentation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate quetiapine

Answer

Initiate quetiapine
This patient is currently experiencing a major depressive episode with atypical features (hypersomnia, hyperphagia, leaden paralysis). However, his history of a distinct period of abnormally elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, and hospitalization confirms a diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder. Therefore, his current presentation is acute bipolar depression. First-line pharmacotherapy for bipolar depression includes specific second-generation antipsychotics (such as quetiapine, lurasidone, or cariprazine) or mood stabilizers (such as lithium or lamotrigine). Quetiapine is a well-established, FDA-approved monotherapy for acute bipolar depression and is the most appropriate next step in management.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's current clinical syndrome.
The patient is experiencing a major depressive episode characterized by depressed mood, hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and leaden paralysis (atypical features).
Establishing the current phase of the illness is required to guide symptom-specific management.
2
Evaluate the patient's psychiatric history for prior mood episodes.
The patient has a history of an episode lasting 8 days with decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, and significant impairment requiring hospitalization.
A history of a manic episode changes the diagnosis from Major Depressive Disorder to Bipolar I Disorder.
3
Select the appropriate pharmacotherapy for acute Bipolar I depression.
Quetiapine is selected over antidepressant monotherapy.
Quetiapine is an approved and effective treatment for bipolar depression, whereas SSRI/SNRI monotherapy is contraindicated due to the risk of inducing mania.

Key Concept

Patients with bipolar depression must be treated with appropriate mood stabilizers or specific second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., quetiapine, lurasidone) rather than antidepressant monotherapy to avoid precipitating a manic switch.
PreviousPage 15 / 41Next
Psychiatry Practice Questions — USMLE Step 2 CK — Page 15 | Examkin