Psychiatry

814 questions

Question 441Question →

Match each clinical presentation with the most likely sleep-wake disorder diagnosis.

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Items

A 55-year-old obese man presents with loud snoring, witnessed gasping during sleep, and morning headaches.
A 22-year-old woman experiences overwhelming daytime sleepiness and sudden bilateral muscle weakness triggered by laughing.
A 45-year-old woman complains of a 'crawling' sensation in her legs occurring only when lying in bed, which improves with walking.
A 68-year-old man frequently punches and kicks his partner during sleep while 'fighting off attackers' in his vivid dreams.

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Answer

Obstructive Sleep Apnea matches with the snoring and obese patient. Narcolepsy Type 1 matches with the sleepiness and cataplexy presentation. Restless Legs Syndrome matches with the leg crawling sensation. REM Sleep Behavior Disorder matches with the dream enactment.
Each presentation matches a distinct sleep disorder mechanism: anatomical airway obstruction causes Obstructive Sleep Apnea; hypocretin deficiency causes the cataplexy seen in Narcolepsy Type 1; dopaminergic dysfunction is thought to drive the sensory urges in Restless Legs Syndrome; and brainstem pathway degeneration leads to the loss of atonia in REM Sleep Behavior Disorder.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first clinical vignette regarding the 55-year-old obese man.
The symptoms of loud snoring, witnessed gasping, and morning headaches indicate upper airway collapse during sleep.
This constellation of symptoms perfectly matches Obstructive Sleep Apnea.
2
Analyze the second clinical vignette regarding the 22-year-old woman.
The presence of overwhelming daytime sleepiness alongside sudden muscle weakness triggered by laughter (cataplexy) is identified.
Cataplexy is highly specific for Narcolepsy Type 1.
3
Analyze the third clinical vignette regarding the 45-year-old woman.
The 'crawling' sensation in the legs that occurs at rest and is relieved by movement is recognized.
These are the diagnostic clinical criteria for Restless Legs Syndrome.
4
Analyze the fourth clinical vignette regarding the 68-year-old man.
The act of physically fighting during vivid dreams indicates a failure of the normal motor paralysis that should occur during REM sleep.
This lack of REM atonia with dream enactment defines REM Sleep Behavior Disorder.

Key Concept

Clinical presentation and diagnostic criteria of primary sleep-wake disorders.
Question 442Question →

A 52-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic accompanied by her husband. For the past 10 months, she has complained of alternating episodes of shortness of breath, severe fatigue, and lower extremity heaviness. She states, "I know my heart or lungs are failing, but no one will listen to me." She brings a detailed log of her symptoms, daily resting heart rates, and oxygen saturation readings. Over the past month, she has visited the emergency department three times for these symptoms. Review of her medical records reveals a recent normal echocardiogram, clear chest radiograph, and normal pulmonary function tests. Laboratory studies from two weeks ago showed a normal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level but a borderline low total T4 level. The patient spends six hours a day researching her symptoms on medical forums and has taken a leave of absence from her job due to severe distress. Her physical examination today is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Schedule regular, brief outpatient follow-up visits with a single primary care provider

Answer

Schedule regular, brief outpatient follow-up visits with a single primary care provider
The correct answer is to schedule regular, brief outpatient follow-up visits. This patient exhibits classic signs of somatic symptom disorder: persistent (greater than 6 months) somatic symptoms that are highly distressing, coupled with excessive time and energy devoted to these symptoms. The most effective management strategy is establishing a strong therapeutic alliance through regularly scheduled, brief appointments with a single primary care provider. This approach provides reassurance, prevents unnecessary diagnostic testing, and minimizes the risk of iatrogenic harm.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's symptoms and timeline.
The patient has multiple distressing physical symptoms lasting 10 months with excessive health-related behaviors.
To establish the diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder.
2
Identify the primary management goal for somatic symptom disorder.
The goal is to provide reassurance, limit iatrogenic harm, and avoid unnecessary testing.
Repeated specialist referrals and tests reinforce the patient's sick role and anxiety.
3
Select the best clinical intervention.
Scheduling regular, brief visits with one primary care provider.
This strategy manages the patient's health anxiety while minimizing unnecessary medical interventions.

Key Concept

The primary management of Somatic Symptom Disorder involves scheduling regular, brief visits with a single primary care provider to build a therapeutic alliance and prevent unnecessary medical testing.
Question 443Question →

A 29-year-old woman comes to the psychiatry clinic seeking help for severe, distressing thoughts. For the past 6 months, she has experienced recurrent, intrusive images of accidentally leaving the stove on and burning down her house. These thoughts cause intense anxiety. To relieve this anxiety, she feels compelled to check the stove exactly seven times before leaving the house, often making her late for work. She recognizes that these thoughts and behaviors are excessive but feels unable to stop them. A review of her psychiatric history reveals a hospitalization 5 years ago for a 10-day episode of persistently elevated mood, grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, and pressured speech. She is currently prescribed phenelzine for depression, but she states it is not helping her checking behaviors. She is open to both psychological and new pharmacological interventions.

Which of the following statements regarding the diagnosis and management of this patient are correct? (Select all that apply)

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Answer: Recommend exposure and response prevention therapy as a first-line psychological intervention.; Require a 14-day washout period after discontinuing phenelzine before starting a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor.

Answer

The correct statements are recommending exposure and response prevention therapy as a first-line psychological intervention, and requiring a 14-day washout period after discontinuing phenelzine before starting a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor.
Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is the first-line, evidence-based psychological treatment for OCD. When pharmacological treatment is indicated, SSRIs are the medications of choice. However, because this patient is currently taking phenelzine (an MAOI), she must undergo a strict 14-day washout period after stopping the MAOI before starting any SSRI to avoid life-threatening serotonin syndrome.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary diagnosis based on the patient's current presentation.
The patient has recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive checking behaviors aimed at reducing anxiety (compulsions). Her insight is intact. This confirms Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD).
Establishing the correct primary diagnosis is necessary to determine the appropriate first-line psychotherapy (ERP).
2
Identify any relevant comorbid psychiatric conditions from the patient's history.
The history of a 10-day episode of elevated mood, grandiosity, and decreased sleep requiring hospitalization indicates a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder.
Comorbid bipolar disorder significantly alters the safety profile of standard pharmacological treatments for OCD, specifically the use of antidepressants.
3
Evaluate the patient's current medication regimen and potential pharmacological interactions.
The patient is currently taking phenelzine, which is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI).
MAOIs have dangerous interactions with serotonergic agents, dictating strict timeline rules for medication transitions.
4
Synthesize the findings to select appropriate management steps.
ERP is the safest and most effective initial treatment. If transitioning to an SSRI, a 14-day MAOI washout is required, and the risk of a manic switch due to the bipolar history must be mitigated, ruling out SSRI monotherapy.
Management must concurrently address the OCD symptoms while preventing serotonin syndrome and iatrogenic mania.

Key Concept

The management of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) frequently utilizes exposure and response prevention (ERP) and SSRIs, but treatment must be carefully tailored to prevent severe pharmacological interactions (e.g., MAOI to SSRI washout) and mood destabilization in patients with comorbid bipolar disorder.
Question 444Question →

A 28-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her husband due to severe anxiety, poor sleep, and behavioral changes. Three weeks ago, she was the victim of a violent home invasion. Since the event, she has experienced frequent, distressing flashbacks, severe insomnia, and an exaggerated startle response. She refuses to be left alone in the house, feels detached from her family, and is unable to return to work. Her medical history is notable for bipolar I disorder, which has been well-controlled on lithium for 5 years. She is also taking phenelzine, prescribed by a previous physician for treatment-resistant depression prior to her bipolar diagnosis. She is requesting medication to help alleviate her current distress. Which of the following are appropriate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select exactly 2)

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Answer: Referral for trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy; Provision of psychoeducation about expected acute stress reactions and coping strategies

Answer

The appropriate next steps are referral for trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy and the provision of psychoeducation about expected acute stress reactions.
Acute stress disorder (ASD) is diagnosed when a patient exhibits prominent trauma-related symptoms (intrusion, negative mood, dissociation, avoidance, arousal) lasting from 3 days to 1 month following the traumatic event. The most effective, evidence-based initial interventions for ASD are trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (TF-CBT) and thorough psychoeducation regarding normal trauma responses. These non-pharmacological approaches provide immediate coping strategies and significantly reduce the likelihood of the condition progressing to post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Establish the correct psychiatric diagnosis based on the timeline of symptoms.
The trauma occurred 3 weeks ago, making the diagnosis acute stress disorder (ASD), not post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which requires symptoms lasting greater than 1 month.
Accurate diagnosis based on symptom duration dictates the appropriate evidence-based therapy.
2
Identify first-line management strategies for the established diagnosis.
First-line interventions for ASD include trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (TF-CBT) and psychoeducation.
These psychotherapeutic approaches are proven to alleviate acute distress and prevent the progression of ASD to PTSD.
3
Evaluate the patient's current medication regimen for potential pharmacological interventions and contraindications.
The patient is taking phenelzine (an MAOI) and lithium (for bipolar I disorder). Adding an SSRI is contraindicated due to the risk of serotonin syndrome, and switching to antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated due to the risk of inducing mania.
Recognizing severe drug-drug interactions and disease-drug contraindications prevents iatrogenic harm when considering medication additions.

Key Concept

The diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder requires trauma-related symptoms lasting between 3 days and 1 month; first-line management involves trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy and psychoeducation, while careful attention must be paid to pharmacological contraindications such as MAOI interactions and bipolar disorder history.
Question 445Question →

A 32-year-old woman presents to an outpatient addiction medicine clinic seeking treatment for severe opioid use disorder. She reports using intravenous heroin daily for the past 3 years and expresses a strong desire to stop. She is currently not intoxicated and shows no signs of opioid withdrawal, having last used heroin 2 hours ago. She and the physician agree to initiate buprenorphine/naloxone therapy. Arrange the following clinical steps in the correct chronological sequence required to safely and effectively initiate and maintain this pharmacotherapy.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first instruct the patient to abstain from opioids, verify the onset of withdrawal symptoms, administer the initial induction dose, titrate the dosage over several days, and finally transition to long-term maintenance therapy.
Buprenorphine is a partial mu-opioid agonist with a very high receptor affinity but lower intrinsic activity compared to full agonists like heroin or methadone. If buprenorphine is administered while a full agonist is still occupying the receptors, it will competitively displace the full agonist, leading to a sudden, severe drop in overall opioid receptor activation. This causes precipitated opioid withdrawal, which is highly distressing and can cause treatment dropout. Therefore, the essential first step is for the patient to abstain from short-acting opioids for 12 to 24 hours. The physician must then objectively confirm that the patient is in mild-to-moderate withdrawal (typically using the Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale, or COWS, requiring a score of 8 or higher) before administering the initial induction dose. Once inducted safely, the dose is titrated over several days to effectively suppress cravings and block the effects of any illicit opioids. Finally, the patient is transitioned to a stable, long-term maintenance dose paired with psychosocial support.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the pharmacological properties of the chosen medication (buprenorphine).
Identify buprenorphine as a partial mu-opioid agonist with high binding affinity.
Understanding its high affinity explains its ability to displace full agonists, which dictates the strict timing required for induction.
2
Determine the necessary physiological state of the patient prior to first administration.
The patient must be in a state of mild-to-moderate opioid withdrawal.
If administered while full agonists (like heroin) still occupy receptors, buprenorphine will precipitate severe withdrawal. Abstinence followed by objective evaluation is mandatory.
3
Sequence the remaining clinical management steps after successful induction.
Initial administration is followed by daily dose titration, which then leads to long-term maintenance.
The dose must be optimized to suppress cravings before the patient can be safely transitioned to stable, long-term outpatient maintenance.

Key Concept

Buprenorphine induction requires the patient to be in mild-to-moderate opioid withdrawal to avoid precipitated withdrawal, due to its properties as a partial agonist with high receptor affinity.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 446Question →

A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 6-week history of persistently depressed mood, profound anhedonia, terminal insomnia, 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss, and difficulty concentrating. He denies any suicidal ideation and exhibits no psychotic features. He has no prior psychiatric or medical history and is currently treatment-naive. Based on standard clinical guidelines, arrange the following management steps in the most appropriate chronological sequence for this patient. Assume that at each subsequent step, the patient experiences an inadequate clinical response despite adequate trial duration, documented medication adherence, and good tolerability.

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Answer

The correct clinical sequence is: 1) Screen for bipolar disorder, 2) Initiate an SSRI, 3) Optimize the SSRI dose, 4) Augment or switch antidepressants, and 5) Refer for ECT.
The standard stepped-care algorithm for major depressive disorder (MDD) begins with accurate diagnosis, which strictly requires ruling out bipolar disorder to prevent antidepressant-induced mania. Once confirmed as unipolar depression, a first-line agent (e.g., SSRI, SNRI, bupropion, mirtazapine) is initiated. If the initial dose yields a partial or non-response after an adequate duration (typically 4-6 weeks) with good tolerability, optimizing the dose of the current agent is preferred. If maximizing the dose fails, the next step involves switching to a different antidepressant class or augmenting with a second-line agent (e.g., aripiprazole, lithium). Finally, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) or other neuromodulation therapies are indicated for true treatment-resistant depression, defined as the failure of at least two adequate trials of different pharmacotherapies in the absence of psychiatric emergencies (where ECT might be moved to first-line).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess diagnostic criteria and definitively rule out bipolar disorder.
The patient is screened for past manic or hypomanic episodes.
Unopposed antidepressants can precipitate mania in patients with underlying but undiagnosed bipolar disorder.
2
Initiate first-line pharmacotherapy.
An SSRI or other first-line antidepressant is prescribed.
This is the standard initial evidence-based treatment for moderate-to-severe unipolar major depressive disorder.
3
Manage the initial inadequate response.
The dose of the initial SSRI is increased to the maximum tolerated dose.
Patients often require dose titration to achieve clinical remission; a trial should not be abandoned prematurely if the drug is well tolerated.
4
Manage the failure of an optimized initial monotherapy.
An augmenting agent (e.g., a second-generation antipsychotic) is added, or the drug class is switched.
Failure of an optimized first-line agent requires a change in pharmacologic strategy to achieve remission.
5
Manage true treatment-resistant depression (TRD).
The patient is referred for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
ECT is indicated for depression that has failed multiple adequate pharmacologic trials in a non-emergent setting, establishing a diagnosis of TRD.

Key Concept

Stepped-care treatment algorithm for Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) and Treatment-Resistant Depression
Question 447Question →

Match each acute psychiatric emergency or adverse medication effect with its most appropriate definitive pharmacological management.

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Items

A patient develops sustained upward deviation of the eyes (oculogyric crisis) and torticollis two days after starting haloperidol.
A patient presents with altered mental status, diaphoresis, hyperreflexia, and myoclonus after simultaneously taking fluoxetine and tramadol.
A patient exhibits lead-pipe muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, autonomic instability, and a markedly elevated creatine kinase level after receiving fluphenazine.
A patient reports an intense internal feeling of restlessness and an urge to constantly pace the room following an increase in their aripiprazole dose.

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Answer

Acute dystonia matches with benztropine/diphenhydramine. Serotonin syndrome matches with cyproheptadine. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) matches with bromocriptine/dantrolene. Akathisia matches with propranolol.
Each psychiatric emergency involves a specific mechanism requiring a targeted pharmacological approach. Acute dystonia is caused by acute D2 receptor blockade leading to a relative excess of acetylcholine, thus requiring anticholinergics (benztropine). Serotonin syndrome results from overstimulation of 5-HT receptors and responds to the serotonin antagonist cyproheptadine. NMS is a life-threatening reaction to dopamine antagonism, treated with dopamine agonists (bromocriptine) or the ryanodine receptor antagonist dantrolene. Akathisia is a form of motor restlessness that best responds to centrally acting beta-blockers (propranolol).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation to identify the specific toxidrome or extrapyramidal symptom (EPS).
Identified four distinct syndromes: acute dystonia (muscle spasms/oculogyric crisis), serotonin syndrome (hyperreflexia/myoclonus), NMS (lead-pipe rigidity/hyperthermia), and akathisia (motor restlessness).
Accurate recognition of the clinical syndrome is essential because these psychiatric emergencies have overlapping features but distinct pathophysiological mechanisms.
2
Match the identified syndrome with its targeted pharmacological reversal agent.
Dystonia requires anticholinergics; serotonin syndrome requires a serotonin antagonist; NMS requires a dopamine agonist or muscle relaxant; akathisia requires a beta-blocker.
Targeted therapies act directly on the disrupted neurotransmitter pathways (e.g., dopamine blockade vs. serotonin excess) to resolve the emergency.

Key Concept

Pharmacological management of acute psychiatric medication emergencies and toxidromes
Question 448Question →

An internal medicine physician is evaluating a 76-year-old male patient who presents with his daughter due to concerns about his worsening memory and unusual behavior over the past 14 months. The daughter reports that his cognitive abilities fluctuate drastically; on some days he is highly conversational and independent, while on other days he stares blankly for hours and requires help with dressing. He frequently reports seeing "small animals" hiding in the corners of his room. His medical history includes hypertension, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and Bipolar I disorder. He discontinued his mood stabilizer 5 years ago against medical advice but has remained euthymic since. Current medications include amlodipine, tamsulosin, and carbidopa-levodopa, which was initiated two months ago by a neurologist for a newly developed resting tremor and bradykinesia.

The patient's daughter is his legally appointed healthcare proxy via a verified advance directive. However, his estranged son is also present at the visit and demands that the physician immediately prescribe a strong medication to "stop the crazy visions," explicitly overriding his sister's request for a cautious approach.

On mental status examination, the patient is alert but oriented only to person. He scores 19/3019/30 on the Montreal Cognitive Assessment, with pronounced deficits in visuospatial function and executive tasks. Physical examination reveals bilateral cogwheel rigidity in the upper extremities.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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Answer: Initiate a cholinesterase inhibitor and discuss the disease trajectory with the daughter

Answer

Initiate a cholinesterase inhibitor and discuss the disease trajectory with the daughter
The correct answer synthesizes three critical elements of this case. First, the clinical triad of fluctuating cognition, well-formed visual hallucinations, and spontaneous parkinsonism establishes the diagnosis of Major Neurocognitive Disorder with Lewy Bodies (DLB). Second, the standard of care for initial pharmacologic management of both cognitive and neuropsychiatric symptoms in DLB is a cholinesterase inhibitor (e.g., rivastigmine or donepezil). Third, from an ethical standpoint, the physician must legally defer to the patient's daughter, as she is the designated healthcare proxy, and disregard the conflicting demands of the estranged son.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical signs and timeline.
Identified a 14-month history of fluctuating cognition, complex visual hallucinations, and spontaneous parkinsonism (rigidity, tremor).
These three core features definitively meet the diagnostic criteria for Major Neurocognitive Disorder with Lewy Bodies (DLB).
2
Evaluate the ethical dilemma regarding surrogate decision-making.
Identified that the daughter is the legally appointed healthcare proxy via an advance directive.
Legally designated proxies have priority over all other next-of-kin, meaning the son's demands must be ethically overridden.
3
Determine the optimal pharmacologic management for DLB while avoiding contraindicated therapies.
Selected a cholinesterase inhibitor while avoiding typical antipsychotics and inappropriate SSRI monotherapy.
Cholinesterase inhibitors treat both the cognitive and behavioral symptoms in DLB safely, whereas neuroleptics trigger severe sensitivity reactions and SSRI monotherapy risks manic switch in bipolar history.

Key Concept

Diagnosis and management of Major Neurocognitive Disorder with Lewy Bodies (DLB), including surrogate decision-making ethics.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 449Question →

Match each patient's clinical presentation with the most appropriate next step in management or specific therapeutic intervention.

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Items

An elderly individual in an acute severe depressive episode who is actively refusing food and fluids, presenting with severe dehydration and delusions of guilt.
A young adult presenting with profound sadness and psychomotor retardation, whose history includes a prior distinct episode of grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, and pressured speech lasting six days.
A patient with major depressive disorder who has shown only a partial response to an adequate 8-week trial of escitalopram, with persistent residual symptoms of fatigue and low motivation.
A healthy professional with a first-time episode of mild major depressive disorder who explicitly declines the use of any psychotropic medications.

Matches

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Answer

The clinical presentations map to their respective best management steps: the food-refusing elderly patient requires electroconvulsive therapy; the patient with past mania needs quetiapine monotherapy; the partial SSRI responder with fatigue benefits from bupropion augmentation; and the medication-averse patient should receive cognitive behavioral therapy.
Each matching pair accurately aligns the patient's unique clinical context (e.g., life-threatening symptoms, bipolar history, medication side effect profile, personal preference) with current psychiatric treatment guidelines.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the elderly patient's presentation for life-threatening features.
The patient has severe dehydration and delusions, indicating depression with psychotic features and imminent physical danger.
Immediate, rapid-acting interventions like ECT are necessary when depression threatens the patient's life through starvation or high suicide risk.
2
Analyze the young adult's psychiatric history prior to the depressive episode.
The history of grandiosity, decreased sleep, and pressured speech confirms a past manic episode, diagnosing Bipolar I Disorder.
Recognizing underlying bipolarity is critical to avoid prescribing antidepressant monotherapy, which can precipitate a manic switch.
3
Assess the treatment response of the patient on escitalopram.
The patient has a partial response but persistent fatigue and low motivation.
A partial response warrants augmentation; bupropion targets dopamine and norepinephrine, effectively treating residual fatigue without adding serotonergic side effects.
4
Incorporate the mild depression patient's treatment preferences.
The patient declines medication but needs treatment for an active depressive episode.
Evidence-based psychotherapy like CBT is equal in efficacy to medications for mild-to-moderate depression and honors patient autonomy.

Key Concept

Treatment selection in depressive disorders depends heavily on illness severity, the presence of psychotic or bipolar features, prior treatment responses, and patient preference.
Question 450Question →

Match each clinical vignette to the most accurate DSM-5 diagnosis.

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Items

A 22-year-old man has a 3-week history of elevated mood, decreased sleep, and grandiosity. He also reports hearing voices plotting against him for the past 2 months, including a 4-week period when his mood was completely normal.
A 29-year-old woman with a history of multiple major depressive episodes presents with a 5-day period of increased energy, rapid speech, and racing thoughts. She remains able to attend work and is not hospitalized.
A 24-year-old man with no prior psychiatric history is brought to the emergency department and hospitalized after 4 days of extreme agitation, euphoria, zero hours of sleep, and reckless financial behavior.
A 35-year-old woman reports a 3-year history of frequently fluctuating mood, involving distinct periods of mild depressive symptoms alternating with periods of mild elevated mood, without ever meeting full criteria for any mood episode.
A 40-year-old man develops acute-onset severe insomnia, pressured speech, and grandiose delusions three days after initiating a high-dose oral prednisone course for a severe asthma exacerbation.

Matches

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Answer

The vignettes correctly match to Schizoaffective disorder (due to psychosis in the absence of mood symptoms), Bipolar II disorder (hypomania with past depression), Bipolar I disorder (hospitalization indicating a manic episode), Cyclothymic disorder (chronic, subsyndromal fluctuations), and Substance/medication-induced bipolar disorder (triggered by corticosteroids).
Each diagnosis in the bipolar spectrum has strict DSM-5 requirements. Schizoaffective disorder requires independent psychosis. Bipolar II requires past major depression and current hypomania. Bipolar I requires mania (achieved here via hospitalization). Cyclothymia requires chronic sub-threshold symptoms. Substance-induced requires a clear exogenous trigger like corticosteroids.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the severity and duration of the elevated mood episodes.
Hospitalization indicates a manic episode (Bipolar I), while a 5-day episode without marked impairment is a hypomanic episode (Bipolar II).
Severity and duration are the primary differentiators between manic and hypomanic episodes.
2
Evaluate the relationship between psychotic symptoms and mood symptoms.
Psychosis occurring for at least 2 weeks without major mood symptoms points to schizoaffective disorder.
This differentiates schizoaffective disorder from a mood disorder with psychotic features.
3
Identify chronicity and potential external triggers.
A 3-year history of subsyndromal symptoms indicates cyclothymia, whereas symptom onset following prednisone use indicates a medication-induced etiology.
Ruling out substance effects and assessing long-term symptom patterns are required steps in DSM-5 psychiatric diagnosis.

Key Concept

Diagnostic differentiation of bipolar and related disorders based on episode duration, severity (hospitalization), chronicity, and temporal relationship to psychosis or medications.
Question 451Question →

A 38-year-old female presents to the clinic with an 8-week history of depressed mood, significant weight loss, early morning awakenings, and severe anhedonia, causing her to take a leave of absence from work. Over the subsequent 14 months, her clinical condition progresses through multiple phases of treatment resistance, eventually culminating in a psychiatric admission for active suicidal ideation with a specific plan. Arrange the following clinical actions in the correct chronological sequence according to evidence-based management guidelines for this patient's evolving condition, from her initial presentation through her eventual inpatient admission.

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with screening for bipolar disorder, followed by an adequate SSRI trial, switching to an SNRI due to non-response, augmenting the SNRI for partial response, and finally utilizing ECT for the emergent, refractory suicidal crisis.
The standard psychiatric algorithm for MDD requires a systematic escalation. Safety is the first priority, making bipolar screening the required initial action. Next, an adequate trial of a first-line agent (SSRI) is necessary, avoiding premature discontinuation. If there is no response, switching to another monotherapy (SNRI) is indicated. If that subsequent trial yields only a partial response, augmentation (e.g., atypical antipsychotic) is added. Finally, if the patient becomes refractory and develops life-threatening features (active suicidality), emergency intervention with ECT is the definitive treatment of choice.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Screen for a history of mania or hypomania.
Bipolar disorder is ruled out.
Administering unopposed antidepressants to a patient with bipolar disorder can precipitate a manic episode. Screening is the absolute first step.
2
Initiate first-line SSRI monotherapy for 4 to 6 weeks.
Patient completes an adequate trial with no clinical response.
Antidepressants take time to downregulate receptors and exhibit clinical effect; a 4-6 week trial prevents premature drug discontinuation.
3
Switch to a different monotherapy class (e.g., SNRI).
Patient achieves only a partial response after another adequate trial.
When there is zero response to a first-line agent, switching to a different medication is standard protocol.
4
Augment the SNRI with a second-generation antipsychotic.
Patient eventually deteriorates despite combination therapy, becoming acutely suicidal.
Augmentation is preferred when a patient has a partial response to avoid losing the slight improvements gained.
5
Admit to psychiatry and administer ECT.
Rapid stabilization of the life-threatening crisis.
ECT provides the most rapid and effective response for severe, treatment-resistant depression with acute suicidality.

Key Concept

Stepped-care management of Major Depressive Disorder, from initial safety screening through adequate medication trials, to emergency neuromodulation.
Question 452Question →

A 78-year-old man is hospitalized for community-acquired pneumonia. On the evening of hospital day 3, he becomes acutely confused, agitated, and combative towards nursing staff. He attempts to pull out his intravenous line, claiming that "snakes are biting his arm." His baseline cognitive function is intact. Arrange the following interventions for managing this patient's acute agitation in the correct escalating sequence, from the initial preferred approach to the absolute last resort.

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Answer

The correct sequence for managing this patient's acute agitation is: 1) Verbal de-escalation, 2) Rapid bedside medical assessment, 3) Sustained non-pharmacologic environmental adjustments, 4) Low-dose typical antipsychotic administration, and 5) Physical restraints.
Delirium is an acute, fluctuating neurocognitive disorder often triggered by underlying medical conditions. The management of associated agitation requires a stepwise escalation. The physician must first attempt to establish safety via verbal de-escalation. Immediately following this, identifying and reversing the underlying medical trigger (e.g., checking oxygen saturation, blood glucose, or examining for urinary retention) is critical. Sustained non-pharmacologic interventions, such as 1:1 sitters, reorientation, and sleep-wake cycle preservation, form the standard of care for symptom management. If these conservative measures fail and the patient remains an imminent danger to themselves or others, chemical restraints (e.g., low-dose haloperidol) may be utilized. Physical restraints are the most restrictive option; they can exacerbate delirium and cause physical injury, so they are indicated only as an absolute last resort to protect life-sustaining medical equipment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Attempt verbal de-escalation and behavioral redirection.
Establishes initial rapport and aims to quickly calm the patient without restrictive measures.
It is the least restrictive and most immediate bedside intervention available when encountering an agitated patient.
2
Perform a rapid bedside medical assessment.
Identifies rapidly reversible physiological triggers such as hypoxia, hypoglycemia, or acute pain.
Delirium is a manifestation of an underlying physiologic insult; correcting the medical trigger is the definitive treatment.
3
Institute sustained non-pharmacologic adjustments and assign a 1:1 sitter.
Provides continuous behavioral monitoring and a soothing, reorienting environment.
Non-pharmacologic measures are the standard of care for managing ongoing delirium symptoms without adverse drug effects.
4
Administer a low-dose typical antipsychotic.
Provides chemical restraint to safely manage severe, refractory agitation.
This is indicated only when behavioral measures fail and the patient poses an imminent physical threat to safety.
5
Apply physical restraints.
Physically prevents the patient from pulling out life-sustaining intravenous lines.
This is the most restrictive measure, carrying a high risk of worsening delirium, and must be used strictly as a last resort.

Key Concept

The management of delirium-associated agitation follows a strict, stepwise escalation pathway from least to most restrictive interventions.
Question 453Question →

A 24-year-old female graphic designer comes to the outpatient clinic reporting a 4-week history of feeling 'completely drained.' She states that she struggles to get out of bed, sleeps up to 14 hours daily, and has lost interest in her hobbies. She has gained 4 kg (8.8 lb) during this time. Her past psychiatric history is significant for a period during her sophomore year of college when she felt 'supercharged' for two weeks, requiring only 2 to 3 hours of sleep per night, talking rapidly, and aggressively confronting her professors, which ultimately led to a brief academic suspension. She is currently sexually active with a male partner and relies on the withdrawal method for contraception. Medical history is unremarkable, and she currently takes no medications. Which of the following are appropriate next steps or considerations in the management of this patient? (Select all that apply)

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Answer: Initiate monotherapy with a second-generation antipsychotic such as quetiapine or lurasidone.; Obtain a urine or serum beta-hCG level prior to initiating pharmacotherapy.

Answer

The correct steps are to initiate monotherapy with an appropriate second-generation antipsychotic (such as quetiapine or lurasidone) and to obtain a pregnancy test before starting pharmacotherapy.
The patient's clinical presentation is consistent with bipolar I disorder, currently in a major depressive episode. First-line treatments for acute bipolar depression include second-generation antipsychotics like quetiapine and lurasidone, which have proven efficacy without the risk of causing a manic switch. Furthermore, because she is a sexually active woman of childbearing age using an unreliable contraceptive method, a pregnancy test is essential prior to prescribing psychotropic medications that may carry teratogenic risks.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current symptoms and past psychiatric history to establish a diagnosis.
The patient is currently in a major depressive episode. Her past history of a two-week period of decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and severe functional impairment (academic suspension) meets the criteria for a manic episode. The diagnosis is Bipolar I disorder, most recent episode depressed.
Accurate diagnosis is critical because the treatment of bipolar depression differs significantly from the treatment of unipolar major depressive disorder.
2
Determine the first-line pharmacological treatment for acute bipolar depression.
First-line treatments include specific second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., quetiapine, lurasidone) or mood stabilizers.
These agents treat bipolar depression effectively while minimizing the risk of a treatment-emergent manic switch.
3
Identify necessary pretreatment evaluations based on patient demographics and social history.
A baseline pregnancy test must be obtained.
The patient is a woman of reproductive age using unreliable contraception. Many treatments for bipolar disorder carry teratogenic risks (e.g., neural tube defects with valproate, Ebstein anomaly with lithium) and must be carefully managed in pregnancy.

Key Concept

Diagnosis and management of acute bipolar depression, including the avoidance of antidepressant monotherapy and the necessity of pretreatment pregnancy screening in reproductive-aged females.
Question 454Question →

A 21-year-old college student presents to the student health clinic reporting a 4-week history of low mood, fatigue, poor concentration, and insomnia. Temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 72/min. Physical examination reveals a well-groomed young man with no acute distress. On mental status examination, he has a depressed affect and slightly delayed speech, but his thought process is linear. When specifically asked about self-harm, he admits to occasional thoughts of suicide but adds, "I could never actually do it. My religion strictly forbids it, and it would destroy my parents." He denies having any specific plan, intent, or past suicide attempts. During the evaluation, the patient explicitly requests that his parents not be told about his clinic visit or his depressive symptoms, stating he does not want to burden them. The physician determines the patient has the capacity to make medical decisions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step regarding the patient's privacy?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain the patient's confidentiality and proceed with outpatient psychiatric care

Answer

Maintain the patient's confidentiality and proceed with outpatient psychiatric care.
The correct answer is to maintain the patient's confidentiality. Physicians are ethically and legally bound to keep patient information private. This rule can only be broken in limited circumstances, such as when a patient poses an imminent and severe threat to themselves or a specific third party. In this scenario, the patient admits to thoughts of suicide but explicitly denies any plan or intent and identifies strong protective factors. Therefore, his risk of self-harm is not imminent, and breaching confidentiality to inform his parents, university, or police is legally unjustified. As a competent adult, his request for privacy must be honored while providing appropriate outpatient psychiatric support.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's suicide risk based on ideation, plan, and intent.
The patient has suicidal ideation but lacks a plan or intent, and cites strong protective factors (religion, family). The risk of imminent harm is low.
Determining the level of suicide risk is essential to decide whether a breach of confidentiality is legally and ethically justified.
2
Evaluate the patient's decision-making capacity.
The physician determines the patient has full capacity to make medical decisions.
Capacity determines whether the patient retains the right to direct their own care and control their health information.
3
Apply the ethical principle of confidentiality.
Because the patient is a competent adult and there is no imminent threat of harm to self or others, his request for confidentiality must be honored.
Confidentiality can only be breached in specific circumstances, such as mandatory reporting of abuse, imminent threat of harm to third parties, or imminent threat of severe self-harm.

Key Concept

In competent adult patients expressing suicidal ideation without intent or plan, the threshold for imminent harm is not met, and the physician must maintain patient confidentiality even against the involvement of family members.
Question 455Question →

A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with severe anorexia nervosa, restricting type. She presents with a BMI of 13.2 kg/m^2, a heart rate of 38/min, and a blood pressure of 82/50 mm Hg. The patient reports consuming only small amounts of water and black tea for the past two weeks. The multidisciplinary team is formulating a comprehensive treatment plan to ensure medical stabilization and long-term recovery while minimizing the risk of fatal complications. Arrange the following clinical management steps in the most appropriate sequential order, from immediate admission priorities to long-term management.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Baseline labs/ECG -> Cautious caloric initiation -> Repletion of electrolyte shifts -> Steady weight restoration -> Outpatient psychotherapy.
The management of severe anorexia nervosa follows a strict hierarchy of needs: preserving life, restoring physical health, and addressing psychological pathology. Immediate baseline assessment (labs/ECG) must occur before any nutrition is provided to identify pre-existing dangerous derangements. Next, feeding must be initiated very cautiously to avoid triggering a massive insulin surge. Despite cautious feeding, intracellular shifts of phosphorus, potassium, and magnesium often occur, requiring vigilant monitoring and repletion (preventing refeeding syndrome). Once the acute metabolic risk window has passed, the focus transitions to steady, protocol-driven weight restoration. Finally, psychotherapy is implemented, as the severely starved brain lacks the cognitive capacity to engage meaningfully in complex psychological therapies like CBT-E until baseline nutritional status is somewhat restored.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the immediate threat to life.
The patient's severe malnutrition places her at extreme risk for sudden cardiac death and refeeding syndrome, making baseline labs and ECG the absolute first priority.
Establishing a baseline prevents exacerbating unrecognized hypokalemia or hypophosphatemia when feeding begins.
2
Determine the initial nutritional strategy.
Feeding is initiated very slowly (10-20 kcal/kg/day) rather than aggressively.
Slow introduction of carbohydrates minimizes the initial insulin spike, reducing the severity of intracellular electrolyte shifts.
3
Plan for acute metabolic complications during early refeeding.
The team monitors daily (or twice daily) metabolic panels to replete phosphorus, potassium, and magnesium as they shift into cells.
Despite cautious feeding, refeeding syndrome can still occur; proactive repletion prevents life-threatening arrhythmias.
4
Establish the subacute recovery goal.
The patient is transitioned to a steady weight restoration protocol (1-2 kg/week).
Once the high-risk metabolic window resolves, consistent caloric surplus is required to restore organ function and body mass.
5
Select the appropriate long-term psychiatric intervention.
CBT-E is planned for the outpatient setting.
A severely starved brain lacks cognitive flexibility. Evidence-based psychotherapy is most effective after partial or full weight restoration.

Key Concept

Sequential management of severe anorexia nervosa emphasizes acute medical stabilization and refeeding syndrome prevention before long-term weight restoration and psychotherapy.
Question 456Question →

An 82-year-old retired pilot is currently admitted to the surgical ward on post-operative day three following an open reduction and internal fixation of a right femoral neck fracture. The on-call physician is paged urgently by the nursing staff because the patient has suddenly become highly disoriented, verbally aggressive, and is actively attempting to remove his peripheral intravenous catheter and surgical dressings. His baseline cognitive status prior to admission was completely intact.

Arrange the following clinical actions in the most appropriate sequential order for the evaluation and management of this patient's acute behavioral decompensation.

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with ruling out immediate life threats (vitals/glucose), followed by implementing non-pharmacologic safety measures, reviewing medications, ordering targeted diagnostic labs, and finally, reserving antipsychotic medications strictly as a last resort.
The evaluation and management of acute delirium follows a strict, step-wise clinical algorithm designed to maximize patient safety and accurately identify reversible causes. The absolute first priority is evaluating ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) and ruling out immediate life threats such as hypoxia or hypoglycemia via vital signs and point-of-care testing. Once life threats are excluded, the immediate goal is to safely manage the patient's agitation; this is achieved through first-line non-pharmacologic interventions like verbal de-escalation, reorientation, and continuous behavioral observation to prevent the patient from pulling lines. Subsequently, the physician must search for the underlying etiology. Reviewing the patient's medication list to identify and discontinue deliriogenic drugs (e.g., sedative-hypnotics, excessive opioids, anticholinergics) is a crucial early step, as iatrogenic causes are highly prevalent and easily modifiable. This is followed by ordering targeted diagnostic studies (e.g., comprehensive metabolic panel, urinalysis) to identify occult medical triggers like infections or electrolyte derangements. Finally, pharmacologic interventions such as low-dose haloperidol are reserved strictly as an intervention of last resort. They are indicated only when optimized non-pharmacologic measures have failed and the patient's severe agitation poses an imminent risk of physical harm to themselves or healthcare staff.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess for immediate life-threatening causes.
Perform a rapid bedside assessment including vital signs, oxygen saturation, and point-of-care blood glucose.
Acute altered mental status requires immediate evaluation to exclude rapidly fatal and reversible causes like hypoxia or hypoglycemia.
2
Manage acute agitation safely at the bedside.
Implement non-pharmacologic safety measures (e.g., reorientation, 1:1 sitter).
First-line management for delirium-associated agitation focuses on de-escalation and environmental modification to avoid physical or chemical restraints.
3
Identify easily modifiable iatrogenic triggers.
Review the medication profile and discontinue deliriogenic agents.
Medications (e.g., opioids, anticholinergics) are the most common modifiable risk factors for inpatient delirium and should be stopped early in the evaluation.
4
Investigate underlying medical etiologies.
Order targeted laboratory studies (e.g., urinalysis, comprehensive metabolic panel).
A medical workup is necessary to identify other common triggers of delirium, such as urinary tract infections, metabolic encephalopathy, or electrolyte imbalances.
5
Utilize pharmacologic restraints only if strictly necessary.
Administer a low-dose antipsychotic (e.g., haloperidol).
Antipsychotics increase mortality in the elderly and are reserved only for severe agitation that poses an imminent physical danger to the patient or staff when all other measures fail.

Key Concept

The management of acute delirium prioritizes the exclusion of immediate life-threatening conditions, followed by non-pharmacologic de-escalation, identification and removal of iatrogenic triggers, targeted medical workup, and restricts the use of antipsychotics to a last-resort intervention.
Question 457Question →

A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents after she fainted during gymnastics practice. She has a 9-month history of severe dietary restriction and intense fear of gaining weight. Her current body mass index (BMI) is 13.2 kg/m213.2 \text{ kg/m}^2. Vital signs show a temperature of 35.2∘C35.2^\circ\text{C} (95.4∘F95.4^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure of 82/50 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 34/min. Physical examination reveals diffuse muscle wasting, lanugo, and delayed capillary refill. Initial laboratory studies show:

ParameterResult
Potassium2.7 mEq/L
Magnesium1.2 mEq/L
Phosphorus2.2 mg/dL

An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals sinus bradycardia with a QTcF of 510 ms.

Arrange the following management steps in the most appropriate chronological order to safely stabilize and treat this patient.

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Answer

The correct sequential order is: 1) Admit to a medical telemetry unit, 2) Administer intravenous thiamine and replete potassium and magnesium, 3) Initiate nutritional rehabilitation at a conservative 10 to 20 kcal/kg/day, 4) Monitor for and replete precipitous drops in serum phosphorus, and 5) Initiate family-based treatment (FBT) in an outpatient setting.
The correct sequence safely addresses the immediate life-threatening complications of severe anorexia nervosa before transitioning to long-term psychiatric management. The patient first requires medical admission and telemetry due to severe bradycardia and prolonged QTc. Second, prophylactic thiamine and electrolyte correction must precede feeding to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy and arrhythmias. Third, conservative refeeding is initiated. Fourth, continuous monitoring and repletion of phosphorus are required as insulin drives electrolytes intracellularly. Finally, once medically stable, the patient transitions to outpatient family-based treatment, the most effective psychotherapy for adolescent anorexia nervosa.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess clinical severity and triage to the appropriate level of care.
Patient is admitted to a medical telemetry unit.
The patient has absolute indications for inpatient medical admission, including a BMI < 15 kg/m², HR < 40/min, and QTcF > 450 ms, requiring continuous cardiac monitoring for fatal arrhythmias.
2
Prepare for nutritional rehabilitation by addressing baseline deficits.
Intravenous thiamine, potassium, and magnesium are administered.
Providing glucose or carbohydrates before correcting these severe deficits can precipitate Wernicke encephalopathy and trigger immediate fatal refeeding syndrome.
3
Begin reversing the state of prolonged starvation.
Nutritional rehabilitation is initiated at a conservative 10 to 20 kcal/kg/day.
A slow, highly controlled introduction of calories blunts the insulin surge, reducing the risk of severe intracellular shifts of electrolytes.
4
Monitor for and manage complications of the refeeding process.
Serum phosphorus is closely monitored and aggressively repleted.
The insulin surge from refeeding causes cellular uptake of phosphorus for ATP synthesis, requiring ongoing aggressive repletion to prevent heart failure and arrhythmias.
5
Plan long-term psychiatric management and weight maintenance.
The patient is transitioned to family-based treatment (FBT).
Once medically stable, FBT is the first-line, evidence-based outpatient psychotherapy for adolescents with anorexia nervosa.

Key Concept

Sequential management of severe anorexia nervosa, emphasizing the prevention of refeeding syndrome and the use of family-based treatment for adolescents.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 458Question →

A 20-year-old collegiate gymnast is evaluated at the university clinic after reporting several weeks of profound muscle weakness, generalized fatigue, and intermittent muscle cramps. Her vital signs are temperature 37.0∘C37.0^\circ\text{C} (98.6∘F98.6^\circ\text{F}), heart rate 94/min, blood pressure 105/65 mm Hg, and respiratory rate 18/min. BMI is 19.5 kg/m 2^2. Physical examination reveals dry mucous membranes and diminished deep tendon reflexes bilaterally. Her dental enamel is completely intact, and there are no calloused lesions on the dorsal aspects of her hands. The parotid glands are not enlarged.

Laboratory studies are obtained and show the following:

Arterial Blood Gas (Room Air)ResultReference Range
pH7.297.35-7.45
pCO2pCO_229 mm Hg35-45 mm Hg
pO2pO_295 mm Hg80-100 mm Hg
Serum ChemistryResultReference Range
Sodium138 mEq/L136-145 mEq/L
Potassium2.7 mEq/L3.5-5.0 mEq/L
Chloride114 mEq/L95-105 mEq/L
Bicarbonate13 mEq/L22-28 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen22 mg/dL7-18 mg/dL
Creatinine1.0 mg/dL0.6-1.2 mg/dL
Glucose85 mg/dL70-110 mg/dL

Which of the following compensatory behaviors is most likely responsible for this patient's clinical and laboratory findings?

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Answer: Frequent use of stimulant laxatives

Answer

The correct answer is frequent use of stimulant laxatives.
The correct answer is frequent use of stimulant laxatives. This patient presents with a normal body mass index, hypokalemia (2.7 mEq/L2.7 \text{ mEq/L}), and a normal anion gap (hyperchloremic) metabolic acidosis. The anion gap is calculated as 138−(114+13)=11 mEq/L138 - (114 + 13) = 11 \text{ mEq/L}, which is normal. In the context of a young female collegiate athlete, this presentation is highly suggestive of an eating disorder with purging behaviors. Laxatives cause significant gastrointestinal losses of bicarbonate (HCO3−HCO_3^-) and potassium (K+K^+), leading directly to a hypokalemic, normal anion gap metabolic acidosis. The absence of dental erosions, parotid swelling, and Russell sign (calluses on hands) further points away from vomiting as the method of purging.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas and serum chemistry to determine the primary acid-base disorder.
The patient has a low pH (7.29) and a low bicarbonate (13 mEq/L13 \text{ mEq/L}), indicating a metabolic acidosis. The pCO2pCO_2 of 29 mm Hg reflects an appropriate respiratory compensation.
Identifying the primary disturbance is the first step in narrowing the differential diagnosis for electrolyte abnormalities.
2
Calculate the serum anion gap (AG).
AG=Na+−(Cl−+HCO3−)=138−(114+13)=11 mEq/LAG = Na^+ - (Cl^- + HCO_3^-) = 138 - (114 + 13) = 11 \text{ mEq/L}. This is within the normal range (8-12 mEq/L), indicating a normal anion gap (hyperchloremic) metabolic acidosis.
The anion gap distinguishes between different etiologies of metabolic acidosis (e.g., normal AG vs. elevated AG).
3
Correlate the normal anion gap metabolic acidosis and profound hypokalemia with the clinical presentation.
A normal BMI athlete presenting with weakness, hypokalemia, and normal AG metabolic acidosis without signs of vomiting (no dental erosions, no parotid swelling) strongly suggests laxative abuse.
Different purging methods cause distinct electrolyte profiles; distinguishing laxative abuse (acidosis) from vomiting (alkalosis) is a critical diagnostic skill.

Key Concept

Bulimia nervosa (purging type via laxative abuse) presents with hypokalemia and a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis due to gastrointestinal loss of potassium and bicarbonate.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 459Question →

During a routine follow-up at a community health clinic, a 2929-year-old male construction worker describes experiencing severe restlessness, diffuse muscle aches, abdominal cramping, and insomnia over the previous 3636 hours. The patient discloses that he had been illicitly purchasing oxycodone to self-medicate for chronic lower back pain. However, he abruptly discontinued its use 22 days ago to 'get clean.' He is highly motivated to remain abstinent and emphatically declines any opioid-based substitution therapy, emphasizing his desire for a non-addictive treatment option. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 37.6∘C37.6^\circ\text{C} (99.7∘F99.7^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure of 156/98 mm Hg156/98\text{ mm Hg}, heart rate of 118 /min118\text{ /min}, and respiratory rate of 18 /min18\text{ /min}. Physical examination demonstrates an anxious, diaphoretic patient with prominent piloerection, frequent yawning, and mydriasis. To specifically target this patient's acute autonomic hyperarousal, the physician prescribes a non-opioid medication. Which of the following neuropharmacological mechanisms best describes the action of the most appropriate drug for this indication?

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Answer: Stimulation of central alpha-2 adrenergic receptors

Answer

Stimulation of central alpha-2 adrenergic receptors
This patient is experiencing acute opioid withdrawal, characterized by prominent sympathetic hyperarousal (tachycardia, hypertension, mydriasis, diaphoresis), piloerection, yawning, and gastrointestinal distress following the abrupt cessation of oxycodone. The standard of care for opioid withdrawal typically involves opioid agonist or partial agonist substitution (e.g., methadone, buprenorphine). However, because this patient explicitly refuses opioid-based therapies, non-opioid symptomatic management is indicated. The most appropriate pharmacologic intervention to mitigate the central autonomic hyperactivity in this setting is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist, such as clonidine or lofexidine. These agents stimulate central alpha-2 receptors in the locus coeruleus, which effectively decreases sympathetic outflow and alleviates symptoms like tachycardia, hypertension, and diaphoresis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation and vital signs.
The patient exhibits autonomic hyperactivity (tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis, mydriasis), piloerection, yawning, and gastrointestinal distress 3636 hours after discontinuing oxycodone.
To establish the diagnosis of acute opioid withdrawal.
2
Identify the patient's specific treatment preferences and constraints.
The patient explicitly refuses opioid-based substitution therapy (e.g., methadone, buprenorphine).
To determine that a non-opioid symptomatic management strategy is required.
3
Determine the most appropriate non-opioid medication to manage the central sympathetic hyperarousal.
Clonidine or lofexidine is indicated to suppress the central autonomic overdrive.
These agents target the locus coeruleus to relieve acute withdrawal symptoms.
4
Identify the neuropharmacological mechanism of the selected medication.
These medications act via stimulation of central alpha-2 adrenergic receptors.
To answer the specific question asked in the prompt regarding the mechanism of action.

Key Concept

Management of acute opioid withdrawal using central alpha-2 adrenergic agonists (e.g., clonidine, lofexidine) when opioid substitution therapy is refused or contraindicated.
Question 460Question →

A 24-year-old woman presents to the outpatient psychiatry clinic complaining of persistent sadness, fatigue, and lack of motivation for the past month. She reports sleeping up to 14 hours a day, an increased appetite with a 4 kg (8.8 lb) weight gain, and difficulty concentrating at work. Medical history is unremarkable, and she does not use illicit substances. During the interview, she mentions that two years ago, she experienced a distinct 6-day period where she felt exceptionally energetic and creative. During that time, she slept only 2 hours a night without feeling tired, spoke much faster than usual, and impulsively booked an expensive vacation she could not afford. Her symptoms during that period did not require hospitalization and resolved spontaneously. If initiated as monotherapy for her current presentation, which of the following medications is most likely to precipitate an adverse psychiatric outcome?

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Answer: Citalopram

Answer

Citalopram
Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). This patient's presentation of a current major depressive episode (hypersomnia, hyperphagia, sadness) and a history of a distinct 6-day period of elevated mood and energy (hypomania) is diagnostic of bipolar II disorder. In patients with bipolar disorder, the use of antidepressant monotherapy is strictly contraindicated because it carries a significant risk of precipitating a manic or hypomanic episode (manic switch). Therefore, starting citalopram monotherapy is the most likely intervention to cause an adverse psychiatric outcome.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's past psychiatric history.
The patient had a 6-day episode of elevated energy, decreased need for sleep, rapid speech, and impulsivity not requiring hospitalization.
This establishes a history of a hypomanic episode.
2
Evaluate the patient's current symptoms.
The patient presents with a one-month history of sadness, hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and poor concentration.
This establishes a current major depressive episode.
3
Synthesize the findings to establish a diagnosis.
A history of a hypomanic episode plus a current major depressive episode meets the criteria for bipolar II disorder.
Accurate diagnosis is essential for guiding pharmacotherapy and avoiding contraindicated medications.
4
Identify the contraindicated medication class for this diagnosis.
Antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated in bipolar disorder due to the risk of precipitating a manic or hypomanic episode.
Citalopram is an antidepressant (SSRI), whereas the other options are mood stabilizers or antipsychotics that are safe in this condition.

Key Concept

In patients with bipolar disorder (I or II), the use of antidepressant monotherapy (such as SSRIs) is contraindicated because it can precipitate a manic or hypomanic episode (manic switch).
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