Surgery

1344 questions

Question 801Question →

A 7272-year-old man is evaluated on postoperative day 44 following an urgent open repair of a perforated anterior duodenal ulcer. He reports rapidly increasing shortness of breath and a cough productive of clear, frothy sputum. His medical history is significant for ischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%35\% and severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His temperature is 38.2∘C38.2^\circ\text{C} (100.8∘F100.8^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure is 158/88 mmHg158/88\text{ mmHg}, pulse is 112/min112/\text{min}, and respirations are 28/min28/\text{min}. Pulse oximetry shows 88%88\% on 4 L/min4\text{ L/min} of oxygen via nasal cannula. Physical examination reveals an elevated jugular venous pressure of 11 cm H2O11\text{ cm H}_2\text{O}. Lung auscultation demonstrates scattered expiratory wheezes and prominent bibasilar crackles. Cardiovascular examination reveals a regular tachycardia with an S3 gallop. The abdomen is soft, mildly distended, and tender only at the midline incision, with no rebound or guarding. Complete blood count shows a leukocyte count of 10,500/mm310,500/\text{mm}^3. A portable chest radiograph reveals an enlarged cardiac silhouette, bilateral perihilar haziness, and cephalization of the pulmonary vessels, without subdiaphragmatic free air. Which of the following are the most appropriate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select 2)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Administration of intravenous furosemide; Application of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation

Answer

The most appropriate initial steps are the administration of intravenous furosemide and the application of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation.
The patient is presenting with acute decompensated heart failure triggered by the expected postoperative mobilization of third-spaced fluids (typically occurring on postoperative days 3-5). Patients with a history of reduced left ventricular ejection fraction are at high risk during this phase. The constellation of elevated jugular venous pressure, an S3 gallop, and characteristic chest radiograph findings points directly to volume overload. The standard initial management for acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema includes reducing preload with intravenous loop diuretics and providing respiratory support with noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's postoperative timeline and risk factors.
The patient is on postoperative day 4 with a history of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.
Postoperative days 3 to 5 are characterized by the mobilization of third-spaced fluids back into the intravascular space, putting patients with compromised cardiac function at high risk for volume overload.
2
Interpret the physical examination and diagnostic findings.
The presence of elevated jugular venous pressure, an S3 gallop, bibasilar crackles, and chest radiograph findings of cephalization and perihilar haziness confirms acute decompensated heart failure.
These findings reliably differentiate cardiogenic pulmonary edema from other causes of postoperative hypoxia, such as pneumonia or pulmonary embolism.
3
Identify the appropriate interventions for the established diagnosis.
Intravenous loop diuretics and noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation are selected.
Diuresis addresses the underlying volume overload, while positive-pressure ventilation immediately improves oxygenation and hemodynamics.

Key Concept

Postoperative acute decompensated heart failure typically occurs on postoperative days 3-5 due to fluid mobilization. It presents with signs of volume overload and is managed with loop diuretics and noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation.
Question 802Question →

A 45-year-old woman is evaluated on postoperative day 1 following an uncomplicated open cholecystectomy. She reports mild pain at the incision site but otherwise feels well. Her temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds at both lung bases. The surgical incision is clean, dry, and intact with no erythema, induration, or purulent drainage. The patient's calves are non-tender. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Incentive spirometry and early ambulation

Answer

The most appropriate next step in management is encouraging incentive spirometry and early ambulation to treat postoperative atelectasis.
The correct answer is to encourage incentive spirometry and early ambulation. Postoperative fever in the first 24 to 48 hours is classically caused by atelectasis (the 'Wind' in the mnemonic for postoperative fever etiologies). The physical examination finding of decreased breath sounds at the lung bases further supports this diagnosis. Management is supportive and focuses on pulmonary toilet to expand the alveoli and clear secretions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the timeline of the patient's fever.
The patient has a low-grade fever on postoperative day 1.
Timing is the most important clue for postoperative fever. Days 1-2 are classically associated with the 'Wind' etiology.
2
Correlate the timeline with physical examination findings.
Decreased breath sounds at the lung bases support a pulmonary etiology, while normal wound and calf exams decrease suspicion for infection or deep vein thrombosis.
This confirms the clinical suspicion of atelectasis.
3
Determine the appropriate management for the identified condition.
Supportive pulmonary care is indicated.
Atelectasis is managed with chest physiotherapy, deep breathing exercises (incentive spirometry), and early ambulation rather than pharmacologic or surgical interventions.

Key Concept

Fever in the first 24 to 48 hours postoperatively is most commonly caused by atelectasis, which is diagnosed clinically and managed with incentive spirometry and early ambulation.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 803Question →

A 42-year-old woman is evaluated in the post-anesthesia care unit 90 minutes following a total thyroidectomy for a large multinodular goiter. The nurse urgently requests an evaluation as the patient has become increasingly agitated and is clutching her neck. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 155/90 mm Hg, a heart rate of 115/min, and a respiratory rate of 28/min. Pulse oximetry demonstrates an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Physical examination reveals audible inspiratory stridor and a tense, expanding ecchymotic mass over the anterior neck. Arrange the following interventions in the most appropriate chronological sequence for the management of this patient.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: 1) Bedside release of surgical sutures and decompression of the cervical fascia, 2) Secure the airway via endotracheal intubation, 3) Transport the patient to the operating room, and 4) Perform formal neck exploration and definitive vessel ligation.
The management of a post-thyroidectomy hematoma with respiratory distress requires immediate bedside decompression. The expanding hematoma causes venous congestion and laryngeal edema, rapidly progressing to complete airway obstruction. Opening the incision (including skin, subcutaneous tissues, and strap muscles) at the bedside immediately relieves this pressure. Only after decompression should endotracheal intubation be attempted, as prior attempts are highly likely to fail due to anatomical distortion. Once the airway is secured, the patient is safely transported to the operating room for formal exploration and definitive hemostasis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Bedside release of surgical sutures and decompression of the cervical fascia
Immediate relief of mechanical airway compression and venous congestion.
Airway obstruction from a post-thyroidectomy hematoma is a surgical emergency. Bedside decompression is the fastest life-saving intervention and must be performed before any attempt at intubation.
2
Secure the airway via endotracheal intubation
Establishment of a definitive, secure airway.
After decompression, the airway anatomy is restored, making intubation safer and more feasible. A secure airway is required prior to transport and further surgery.
3
Transport the patient to the operating room
Safe relocation of the stabilized patient.
Transporting a patient with an unsecured airway and an expanding neck hematoma is highly dangerous and contraindicated.
4
Perform formal neck exploration and definitive vessel ligation
Definitive hemostasis and complete evacuation of the hematoma.
Definitive surgical management is required to identify and ligate the bleeding vessel, ensuring no further hemorrhage occurs.

Key Concept

The immediate management of a post-thyroidectomy hematoma with airway compromise is bedside decompression (opening the wound), followed by endotracheal intubation and transfer to the operating room for definitive exploration.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 804Question →

Match each classic clinical presentation of an acute surgical abdomen to the most likely diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 42-year-old woman presents with steady right upper quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis. Examination reveals inspiratory arrest upon deep palpation of the right subcostal area.
A 22-year-old man presents with anorexia and vague periumbilical pain that later localizes to the right lower quadrant with guarding and rebound tenderness.
A 68-year-old man with chronic osteoarthritis presents with sudden-onset, severe, diffuse abdominal pain. Examination shows board-like rigidity, and an upright chest x-ray reveals pneumoperitoneum.
A 55-year-old woman with a history of an open appendectomy presents with crampy abdominal pain, bilious vomiting, and high-pitched 'tinkling' bowel sounds on auscultation.

Matches

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Answer

1 matches with Acute cholecystitis, 2 matches with Acute appendicitis, 3 matches with Perforated peptic ulcer, and 4 matches with Small bowel obstruction.
Each clinical scenario provides classic, pathognomonic historical and physical examination findings that directly correlate to a specific acute surgical abdomen diagnosis. Recognizing these foundational patterns allows for accurate and rapid clinical triage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first clinical vignette.
The patient has right upper quadrant pain, fever, and a positive Murphy sign.
These findings are highly specific for gallbladder inflammation and cystic duct obstruction.
2
Analyze the second clinical vignette.
The patient demonstrates the classic migratory pain pattern from the periumbilical region to the right lower quadrant, accompanied by anorexia and rebound tenderness.
This progression of symptoms points to early visceral pain from luminal obstruction followed by somatic pain from localized parietal peritoneal inflammation.
3
Analyze the third clinical vignette.
The patient has acute diffuse peritonitis and pneumoperitoneum in the setting of chronic NSAID use.
Free air indicates a hollow viscus perforation, typically a duodenal or gastric ulcer in a patient with risk factors like osteoarthritis requiring NSAIDs.
4
Analyze the fourth clinical vignette.
The patient exhibits obstructive symptoms with high-pitched bowel sounds and a surgical history.
Prior abdominal surgery predisposes to intra-abdominal adhesions, which are the most common cause of mechanical small bowel obstruction.

Key Concept

Identifying classic clinical presentations of common surgical emergencies based on history and physical examination is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate intervention.
Question 805Question →

A 62-year-old male patient is evaluated in the emergency department for three days of progressively worsening left lower quadrant abdominal pain accompanied by chills. His vital signs show a temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure of 128/78 mmHg, and heart rate of 92/min. On physical examination, there is focal tenderness and voluntary guarding in the left lower quadrant, but the abdomen is not rigid and there is no diffuse rebound tenderness. Laboratory evaluation reveals a leukocyte count of 16,500/mm³. A contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis confirms severe sigmoid diverticulitis complicated by a 5.5-cm, well-defined peri-colonic fluid collection.

Arrange the following management steps in the most appropriate chronological sequence for this patient, from immediate acute care to definitive long-term management.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: 1) Initiate broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics, 2) Perform CT-guided percutaneous drainage of the fluid collection, 3) Perform a colonoscopy to rule out underlying colorectal malignancy, and 4) Proceed with an elective sigmoid colectomy.
The standard sequence of care for a hemodynamically stable patient with a diverticular abscess greater than 3 centimeters begins with inpatient admission for intravenous antibiotics, followed closely by CT-guided percutaneous drainage to evacuate the infected fluid. Once the patient is discharged and recovers for 6 to 8 weeks, the risk of bowel perforation decreases, making it safe to perform an interval colonoscopy to ensure there is no underlying colonic neoplasm. After malignancy is definitively ruled out, the final step is an elective sigmoid colectomy to prevent future episodes of complicated diverticulitis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the diagnosis and determine the acute treatment pathway.
The patient has Hinchey II complicated diverticulitis (a 5.5-cm abscess) and is hemodynamically stable, allowing for a non-operative initial approach.
Stable patients with localized abscesses should be managed medically and radiologically to avoid the morbidity of an emergent laparotomy and colostomy (Hartmann procedure).
2
Select the immediate acute interventions.
Intravenous antibiotics are started immediately, followed by CT-guided percutaneous drainage.
While antibiotics treat the infection systemically, abscesses larger than 3-4 cm require physical drainage for adequate source control and clinical improvement.
3
Determine the necessary interval diagnostic workup.
A colonoscopy is scheduled for 6 to 8 weeks after the acute episode resolves.
Colorectal cancer can present with localized perforation mimicking an abscess. Colonoscopy is contraindicated acutely due to perforation risk but is mandatory once the bowel heals.
4
Determine the definitive long-term surgical plan.
An elective sigmoid colectomy is planned.
Patients who survive an episode of complicated diverticulitis are at high risk for severe recurrent attacks; elective resection with primary anastomosis removes the diseased segment safely.

Key Concept

The management of complicated diverticulitis with a localized abscess (Hinchey II) involves acute source control with intravenous antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, followed by an interval colonoscopy to rule out malignancy, and finally consideration of an elective colon resection.
Question 806Question →

An emergency medical services team transports a 71-year-old man to the acute care bay after he suddenly collapsed at a grocery store. Prior to collapsing, he complained of severe, tearing pain in his lower back and abdomen. His past medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 45-pack-year smoking history. Upon arrival, he is lethargic but arousable. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), blood pressure is 74/42 mm Hg, pulse is 128/min, and respirations are 24/min. The patient's skin is pale, cold, and clammy. Physical examination of the abdomen reveals a prominent, expansile, pulsatile mass measuring approximately 7 cm in width. The abdomen is otherwise soft without peritoneal signs. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Immediate surgical exploration

Answer

Immediate surgical exploration
This patient presents with the classic triad of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA): severe abdominal and back pain, hemodynamic instability (hypotension, tachycardia), and a palpable, expansile pulsatile abdominal mass. The most appropriate next step in management for a hemodynamically unstable patient with a clinically obvious ruptured AAA is immediate surgical exploration (either open repair or endovascular aneurysm repair). Any delay to obtain imaging or perform further diagnostic testing in a patient with an undeniable pulsatile mass and shock drastically increases mortality.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary pathophysiologic state.
The patient is in profound hemorrhagic shock, indicated by hypotension (74/42 mm Hg), tachycardia (128/min), and poor peripheral perfusion (pale, cold, clammy skin).
Vital signs dictate the immediate urgency and safety parameters for further diagnostic testing.
2
Correlate the shock state with the physical examination findings.
The patient has sudden lower back and abdominal pain combined with a 7 cm expansile, pulsatile abdominal mass.
This classic triad (pain, hypotension, pulsatile mass) in an older male smoker is highly specific for a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
3
Determine the algorithmic next step for a ruptured AAA.
Proceed directly to the operating room for immediate surgical exploration (open or endovascular repair).
In a hemodynamically unstable patient with a clinically evident ruptured AAA, any delay for imaging significantly increases mortality.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients presenting with the classic triad of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (abdominal/back pain, hypotension, and a definitive pulsatile mass) require immediate surgical exploration without prior imaging.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 807Question →

Match each trauma patient presentation with the most appropriate definitive next step in management. Assume airway and breathing have been secured in all patients.

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Items

Hemodynamically unstable patient with blunt abdominal trauma, negative FAST scan, and a mechanically stabilized open-book pelvic fracture.
Hemodynamically unstable patient with blunt trauma and positive FAST scan demonstrating significant free fluid in the hepatorenal recess.
Hemodynamically stable patient with blunt trauma, mild left upper quadrant tenderness, and positive FAST scan demonstrating a small amount of perisplenic fluid.
Hemodynamically unstable patient with a penetrating parasternal stab wound, distended neck veins, and positive FAST scan demonstrating pericardial fluid.

Matches

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Answer

Unstable patient with negative FAST and pelvic fracture -> Pelvic angiography. Unstable patient with positive FAST (intraabdominal) -> Exploratory laparotomy. Stable patient with positive FAST -> CT scan. Unstable patient with positive FAST (pericardial) -> Median sternotomy or thoracotomy.
The correct matches strictly adhere to ATLS protocols. Hemodynamic instability with intraabdominal fluid requires laparotomy, whereas instability with pericardial fluid requires sternotomy/thoracotomy. Stable patients can safely undergo CT imaging. Unstable patients with pelvic fractures and negative FAST scans require angiography to manage retroperitoneal arterial bleeding.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status.
Identify whether the patient is hemodynamically stable or unstable, as this dictates the urgency and type of the next intervention.
Hemodynamically unstable patients cannot tolerate the delays or the physical environment of the CT scanner and require immediate bedside or operative intervention.
2
Interpret the Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) results in the context of stability.
A positive FAST in an unstable patient mandates immediate surgery (laparotomy for abdominal fluid, sternotomy/thoracotomy for pericardial fluid).
FAST rapidly identifies life-threatening hemorrhage or tamponade that is actively causing shock.
3
Evaluate the management of pelvic fractures with concurrent shock.
Recognize that a negative FAST in an unstable patient with a pelvic fracture strongly suggests retroperitoneal bleeding, which is not addressable via laparotomy.
Laparotomy releases the retroperitoneal tamponade effect, potentially worsening hemorrhage. These patients need mechanical stabilization followed by angiography.

Key Concept

Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) diagnostic and therapeutic algorithms based on hemodynamic stability, mechanism of injury, and FAST scan findings.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 808Question →

A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. On initial evaluation, he opens his eyes only when the physician loudly calls his name. When asked what happened, he responds with single, random words that do not form coherent sentences. When pressure is applied to his right fingernail bed, he briskly flexes his elbow to pull his right arm away from the stimulus, but does not reach toward the examiner's hand. What is this patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

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Answer: 10

Answer

10
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) evaluates a patient's level of consciousness based on three categories: Eye Opening (E), Verbal Response (V), and Best Motor Response (M). This patient opens his eyes to sound (E3), uses inappropriate words rather than conversational sentences (V3), and withdraws from pain without localizing it (M4). The total score is calculated by adding these components: E3 + V3 + M4 = 10 points. Calculating an accurate GCS score is a critical initial step in the primary survey of any trauma patient to determine the severity of traumatic brain injury and the potential need for definitive airway management.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Eye Opening (E)
3 points
The patient opens his eyes in response to a verbal stimulus (his name being called).
2
Evaluate Verbal Response (V)
3 points
The patient speaks single, random words but does not engage in a conversation.
3
Evaluate Motor Response (M)
4 points
The patient exhibits normal flexion and withdrawal from a painful stimulus without purposefully localizing the source of pain.
4
Calculate the total score
10 points
The total Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is the sum of the Eye, Verbal, and Motor components (3 + 3 + 4).

Key Concept

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) Scoring
Estimated Time:45s
Question 809Question →

Match each classic thoracic trauma clinical presentation with its most appropriate definitive diagnostic modality or immediate intervention.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Severe respiratory distress, unilateral absent breath sounds, and tracheal deviation away from the affected side following blunt trauma
Persistent continuous air leak and failure of lung re-expansion despite adequate chest tube placement after blunt chest trauma
Widened mediastinum, obliteration of the aortic knob, and depression of the left mainstem bronchus on chest radiograph following a high-speed deceleration injury
Hypotension, jugular venous distension, and muffled heart sounds following a penetrating injury to the left parasternal area

Matches

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Answer

Tension pneumothorax matches with immediate needle/finger thoracostomy. Tracheobronchial injury matches with bronchoscopy. Blunt aortic injury matches with CTA of the chest. Cardiac tamponade matches with bedside echocardiography.
Each presentation represents a classic thoracic trauma scenario. Tension pneumothorax is diagnosed clinically and treated immediately with decompression. Tracheobronchial injuries require bronchoscopy for visualization of the airway tear. Suspected blunt aortic injury requires CTA for definitive diagnosis. Cardiac tamponade is rapidly confirmed with bedside ultrasound.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first presentation (severe respiratory distress, absent breath sounds, tracheal deviation).
Identify this as a tension pneumothorax.
Recognizing it as a clinical diagnosis means intervention (thoracostomy) must precede any imaging.
2
Analyze the second presentation (continuous air leak, failure of lung re-expansion).
Identify this as a tracheobronchial injury.
To select bronchoscopy as the definitive diagnostic and therapeutic planning study.
3
Analyze the third presentation (widened mediastinum after deceleration injury).
Identify the high risk for blunt thoracic aortic injury.
To select CTA of the chest as the gold standard diagnostic test.
4
Analyze the fourth presentation (hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds after penetrating trauma).
Identify Beck's triad for cardiac tamponade.
To select bedside echocardiography (FAST) to rapidly confirm pericardial effusion prior to definitive surgical management.

Key Concept

Diagnosis and acute management of life-threatening thoracic trauma (tension pneumothorax, tracheobronchial injury, blunt aortic injury, cardiac tamponade).
Question 810Question →

An 82-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from a long-term care facility due to progressive abdominal swelling and a lack of bowel movements for the past three days. He has a history of Parkinson disease, hypertension, and chronic constipation. His medications include carbidopa-levodopa, amlodipine, and a daily multivitamin. On arrival, his temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 138/82 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Physical examination reveals a markedly distended, tympanitic abdomen. There is mild diffuse tenderness to palpation, but no guarding, rigidity, or rebound tenderness. Digital rectal examination demonstrates an empty rectal vault. Laboratory studies reveal a leukocyte count of 8,200/mm³ and normal serum electrolytes. A plain abdominal radiograph demonstrates a massively dilated large bowel loop resembling an inverted U-shape extending from the pelvis toward the right upper quadrant, with a loss of haustral markings. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Endoscopic detorsion via flexible sigmoidoscopy

Answer

Endoscopic detorsion via flexible sigmoidoscopy
The correct answer is endoscopic detorsion via flexible sigmoidoscopy. This patient's presentation (elderly, chronic constipation, Parkinson disease) and classic radiographic findings (massively dilated large bowel resembling an inverted U-shape) are highly diagnostic of a sigmoid volvulus. Because he is hemodynamically stable, lacks fever, and has a non-rigid abdomen without rebound tenderness, the volvulus is considered uncomplicated (no evidence of ischemia or perforation). In such cases, the standard of care is therapeutic endoscopy, which allows the twisted segment to be directly visualized, decompressed, and detorsed. A rectal tube is often left in place to prevent immediate recurrence.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's demographics, history, and presentation.
An elderly male with neurologic comorbidity (Parkinson disease) and chronic constipation presenting with severe abdominal distension and obstipation.
These are the classic risk factors and presenting symptoms for a sigmoid volvulus.
2
Interpret the radiographic findings and physical examination.
The X-ray shows a massively dilated large bowel loop in an inverted U-shape (the 'coffee bean' or 'bent inner tube' sign). The physical exam shows a distended abdomen without guarding or rebound tenderness.
The X-ray confirms a sigmoid volvulus. The lack of peritonitis and normal vital signs confirm that the volvulus is 'uncomplicated' (no bowel ischemia or perforation).
3
Determine the appropriate treatment algorithm for uncomplicated sigmoid volvulus.
The initial treatment of choice is endoscopic decompression and detorsion.
Flexible sigmoidoscopy safely untwists the bowel and relieves the obstruction. Surgery is reserved for patients with peritonitis, bowel ischemia, or those who fail endoscopic detorsion.

Key Concept

The initial management of an uncomplicated sigmoid volvulus is endoscopic detorsion via flexible sigmoidoscopy.
Question 811Question →

A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of constant, worsening left lower quadrant abdominal pain. He also reports fever, mild nausea, and no bowel movements for the past 48 hours. His medical history is significant for hypertension and chronic constipation. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination reveals focal tenderness to palpation in the left lower quadrant with voluntary guarding, but no rebound tenderness or diffuse rigidity. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 14,000/mm³. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?

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Answer: Computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis

Answer

Computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
The patient's presentation of fever, left lower quadrant pain, and leukocytosis is highly suspicious for acute diverticulitis. In a hemodynamically stable patient without signs of generalized peritonitis, the most appropriate next step in evaluation is a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis. A CT scan can confirm the diagnosis by revealing colonic wall thickening and pericolic fat stranding, and it can also identify complications such as abscesses that might require percutaneous drainage or surgery.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the classic clinical presentation.
The patient has left lower quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis.
This triad is the classic presentation of acute diverticulitis, which is highly likely given his age and history of chronic constipation.
2
Assess for signs of complicated disease or acute abdomen.
The patient is hemodynamically stable and has focal (not diffuse) tenderness without rebound or rigidity.
The absence of generalized peritonitis or shock indicates that immediate surgical exploration is not required, and diagnostic imaging can be safely pursued.
3
Select the optimal diagnostic test.
A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is selected.
CT scan is the gold standard for confirming acute diverticulitis and evaluating for complications such as abscess, fistula, or contained perforation, while avoiding tests that increase perforation risk.

Key Concept

The diagnostic modality of choice for suspected acute diverticulitis in a hemodynamically stable patient without generalized peritonitis is a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast.
Question 812Question →

An 81-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department from a long-term care facility due to severe, unrelenting abdominal pain and recurrent bilious vomiting for the past 24 hours. She has not had a bowel movement or passed flatus for 2 days. Her medical history includes atrial fibrillation, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. She has no history of previous abdominal surgeries. Her temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), pulse is 122/min, and blood pressure is 94/56 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals a markedly distended and tympanic abdomen with diffuse guarding and rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are absent. A firm, exquisitely tender, 4-cm mass is palpable in the right groin, located inferior to the inguinal ligament and medial to the femoral artery pulsation. The skin overlying the mass is erythematous and dusky. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 19,500/mm³ and a serum lactate of 4.2 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Immediate surgical exploration

Answer

The most appropriate next step is immediate surgical exploration to relieve the obstruction and resect any necrotic bowel.
The correct answer is immediate surgical exploration. This patient presents with a small bowel obstruction complicated by a strangulated femoral hernia, indicated by the painful, non-reducible groin mass specifically located below the inguinal ligament. The presence of fever, tachycardia, hypotension, leukocytosis, elevated lactate, and peritonitis (guarding, rebound tenderness) are hallmark signs of bowel ischemia and necrosis. In the setting of a complicated mechanical obstruction with peritonitis or hemodynamic instability, immediate surgical intervention is required to resect necrotic bowel and repair the hernia defect.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical syndrome
The patient presents with severe abdominal pain, bilious vomiting, obstipation, and a distended tympanic abdomen, indicating a small bowel obstruction (SBO).
Recognizing the core pathology narrows down the differential diagnosis.
2
Localize the etiology based on physical examination
The presence of a tender, non-reducible mass inferior to the inguinal ligament and medial to the femoral pulse specifically indicates a femoral hernia.
Physical exam findings are crucial for differentiating the specific anatomical cause of a mechanical bowel obstruction.
3
Assess for complications indicating ischemia or necrosis
Fever, tachycardia, hypotension, localized skin erythema, leukocytosis, elevated lactate, and diffuse peritonitis confirm that the herniated bowel segment is strangulated.
Identifying strangulation is the critical decision point that dictates the urgency and type of intervention.
4
Determine the next best step in management
A strangulated SBO with peritonitis requires immediate surgical exploration to relieve the obstruction, resect necrotic bowel, and repair the hernia defect.
Surgical emergencies with peritonitis must not be delayed by further imaging or conservative measures.

Key Concept

Patients with a small bowel obstruction complicated by signs of strangulation (fever, hemodynamic instability, peritonitis, lactic acidosis) require immediate surgical exploration without delaying for further imaging.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 813Question →

A 62-year-old man is evaluated in the surgical intensive care unit for a new-onset fever. He was admitted 12 days ago after sustaining severe blunt abdominal trauma in a motor vehicle collision. He underwent an emergency exploratory laparotomy with splenectomy and repair of multiple small bowel lacerations. His postoperative course has been complicated by acute respiratory distress syndrome requiring prolonged mechanical ventilation, and he has been receiving total parenteral nutrition via a right internal jugular central venous catheter for the past 10 days.

Today, his temperature has spiked to 39.4°C (102.9°F). Blood pressure is 100/65 mm Hg, pulse is 118/min, and respirations are 22/min on the ventilator. He is sedated but grimaces when the right upper quadrant of his abdomen is palpated. The laparotomy incision is clean and intact. The central venous catheter site shows no erythema, induration, or purulent exudate.

Laboratory studies:
ParameterResult
Leukocyte count24,000/mm³ (85% segmented neutrophils, 10% bands)
Total bilirubin3.8 mg/dL
Direct bilirubin2.9 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase410 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)95 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)102 U/L

Blood and urine cultures are drawn, and empiric broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics are initiated.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

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Answer: Bedside right upper quadrant ultrasonography

Answer

The correct answer is bedside right upper quadrant ultrasonography.
The correct answer is bedside right upper quadrant ultrasonography. This patient's clinical picture is highly characteristic of acute acalculous cholecystitis. Risk factors include critical illness (severe trauma, ARDS, mechanical ventilation), prolonged fasting, and total parenteral nutrition (TPN). These factors lead to gallbladder stasis and ischemia, resulting in inflammation without the presence of gallstones. The patient's new-onset fever, leukocytosis, right upper quadrant tenderness (evidenced by grimacing on palpation), and classic cholestatic liver enzyme pattern (disproportionately elevated direct bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase) point directly to a hepatobiliary source. Bedside right upper quadrant ultrasonography is the diagnostic test of choice because it is fast, highly specific for gallbladder pathology (showing a thickened gallbladder wall and pericholecystic fluid), and can be performed without transporting an unstable, mechanically ventilated patient.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's risk factors and timeline.
The patient is critically ill, mechanically ventilated, and receiving total parenteral nutrition on postoperative day 12. This places him at extremely high risk for biliary stasis and gallbladder ischemia.
Identifying the systemic risk factors helps narrow the differential diagnosis for late postoperative fever in the intensive care unit.
2
Evaluate the physical examination and laboratory data.
The patient exhibits localized right upper quadrant tenderness (grimacing) along with a prominent cholestatic pattern on liver function tests (elevated direct bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase).
These findings localize the infectious source to the hepatobiliary system, differentiating it from generalized abdominal abscesses or catheter-related infections.
3
Select the optimal initial diagnostic modality.
Bedside right upper quadrant ultrasonography is selected as the first-line test.
Ultrasound is the most appropriate initial step because it is highly sensitive for gallbladder wall thickening and pericholecystic fluid, and it avoids the significant risks associated with transporting a critically ill, mechanically ventilated patient to the radiology suite.

Key Concept

Acute acalculous cholecystitis should be suspected in critically ill patients (e.g., trauma, burns, prolonged total parenteral nutrition) who develop unexplained fever, leukocytosis, and cholestatic liver enzymes. Bedside right upper quadrant ultrasound is the initial diagnostic test of choice.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 814Question →

A 42-year-old male is transported to the emergency department via helicopter after a high-speed motorcycle collision. Upon arrival, his airway is patent, and breath sounds are vesicular and equal bilaterally. His blood pressure is 75/40 mmHg, and his heart rate is 132/min. The abdomen is soft, non-distended, and without rebound tenderness. Examination of the lower half of the body reveals a shortened and externally rotated right lower extremity, as well as significant ecchymosis over the scrotum and perineum. Gentle palpation of the iliac crests reveals abnormal mobility. A focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) examination demonstrates no free intraperitoneal or pericardial fluid. Intravenous access is established, and administration of uncrossmatched blood is initiated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Application of a noninvasive pelvic binder

Answer

Application of a noninvasive pelvic binder
The correct answer is application of a noninvasive pelvic binder. This patient presents with profound hemorrhagic shock (hypotension, marked tachycardia) and physical exam findings highly concerning for an open-book pelvic ring disruption (scrotal/perineal ecchymosis, abnormal mobility of iliac crests). In patients with severe pelvic trauma, the primary source of life-threatening hemorrhage is often the presacral venous plexus or branches of the internal iliac artery. Because the FAST exam is negative, the bleeding is retroperitoneal rather than intraperitoneal. Therefore, the immediate next step in management is mechanical stabilization of the pelvis using a commercial pelvic binder (or a sheet wrapped around the greater trochanters). This critical maneuver reduces pelvic volume, promotes a tamponade effect on venous bleeding, and stabilizes the fracture ends to prevent further hemorrhage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary physiologic derangement.
The patient is in class III/IV hemorrhagic shock (BP 75/40 mmHg, HR 132/min).
Recognizing shock determines the immediate need for aggressive resuscitation and source control over non-emergent diagnostics.
2
Localize the source of life-threatening hemorrhage.
The bleeding is retroperitoneal, originating from an unstable pelvic fracture (abnormal iliac mobility, perineal ecchymosis, negative FAST).
A negative FAST in the setting of shock and an unstable pelvis points to the presacral venous plexus or internal iliac arteries as the source.
3
Select the immediate intervention for source control.
Application of a pelvic binder.
Mechanical stabilization decreases pelvic volume and creates a tamponade effect to control retroperitoneal venous hemorrhage while preparing for potential definitive procedures.

Key Concept

In a hemodynamically unstable patient with an open-book pelvic fracture and a negative FAST exam, the most appropriate immediate next step after fluid/blood resuscitation is mechanical stabilization with a pelvic binder to tamponade retroperitoneal bleeding.
Question 815Question →

A 22-year-old male is brought to the emergency department via ambulance after being struck by a motor vehicle while riding his bicycle. He was reportedly thrown over the handlebars. On arrival, he is confused and diaphoretic. His temperature is 36.5∘C36.5^\circ\text{C} (97.7∘F97.7^\circ\text{F}), blood pressure is 78/40 mmHg78/40\text{ mmHg}, pulse is 135/min135\text{/min}, and respirations are 24/min24\text{/min}. Oxygen saturation is 97%97\% on room air. The airway is clear, and breath sounds are equal bilaterally. Primary survey reveals marked abdominal distension with diffuse guarding and rebound tenderness. A focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) demonstrates a large amount of free fluid in the hepatorenal recess (Morison's pouch). Intravenous fluid resuscitation is initiated with 1 L1\text{ L} of warmed crystalloid, but his repeat blood pressure is 80/42 mmHg80/42\text{ mmHg}. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Immediate exploratory laparotomy

Answer

The correct management is immediate exploratory laparotomy.
The patient presents with blunt abdominal trauma, hemorrhagic shock that is unresponsive to initial fluid resuscitation, and a positive FAST scan showing intraperitoneal fluid. According to Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocols, a hemodynamically unstable patient with a positive FAST has a definitive indication for immediate exploratory laparotomy to control the bleeding.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's hemodynamic status.
The patient is in hemorrhagic shock, evidenced by hypotension (78/40 mmHg78/40\text{ mmHg}), tachycardia (135/min135\text{/min}), and unresponsiveness to initial fluid resuscitation.
Hemodynamic stability dictates the diagnostic and therapeutic algorithm in trauma.
2
Evaluate the mechanism of injury and primary survey findings.
Blunt abdominal trauma with signs of peritonitis and a positive FAST scan indicating free intraperitoneal fluid.
Identifies the abdomen as the likely source of the life-threatening hemorrhage.
3
Determine the definitive next step for a hemodynamically unstable patient with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST.
Proceed directly to the operating room for an exploratory laparotomy.
Hemodynamically unstable patients with confirmed intra-abdominal bleeding cannot safely undergo cross-sectional imaging (CT) and require immediate surgical control of hemorrhage.

Key Concept

Hemodynamically unstable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and a positive FAST require immediate exploratory laparotomy.
Question 816Question →

Match each anatomic description or clinical presentation with the correct type of abdominal or pelvic hernia.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Protrusion of abdominal contents medial to the inferior epigastric vessels, directly through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.
Protrusion of abdominal contents through the deep inguinal ring, lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.
Herniation occurring inferior to the inguinal ligament and medial to the femoral vein, often presenting with a high rate of bowel strangulation.
Herniation through the aponeurosis of the transverse abdominal muscle, typically occurring at the lateral edge of the rectus abdominis muscle.
Herniation through the pelvic floor presenting with signs of bowel obstruction and medial thigh pain worsened by hip extension.

Matches

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Answer

Direct inguinal hernias are medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. Indirect inguinal hernias are lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. Femoral hernias are inferior to the inguinal ligament. Spigelian hernias occur at the lateral edge of the rectus abdominis. Obturator hernias present with medial thigh pain.
Each type of abdominal wall and pelvic hernia is defined by its precise anatomical boundaries. Direct and indirect inguinal hernias are differentiated by their position relative to the inferior epigastric vessels (medial versus lateral, respectively). Femoral hernias are located inferior to the inguinal ligament and carry a high risk of strangulation. Spigelian hernias uniquely protrude through the aponeurotic defect at the linea semilunaris. Obturator hernias compress the obturator nerve in the obturator canal, leading to the classic Howship-Romberg sign (medial thigh pain exacerbated by hip extension and internal rotation).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the relationship of the hernia to the inferior epigastric vessels.
A medial location indicates a direct inguinal hernia, while a lateral location indicates an indirect inguinal hernia.
This is the primary anatomical landmark used during surgery to differentiate the two common types of inguinal hernias.
2
Evaluate the relationship of the hernia to the inguinal ligament.
A protrusion inferior to the inguinal ligament indicates a femoral hernia.
Femoral hernias pass into the femoral canal, predisposing them to a high rate of incarceration and strangulation due to the narrow rigid borders of the femoral ring.
3
Identify specific unique anatomical locations or nerve compression signs for atypical hernias.
Herniation at the linea semilunaris defines a Spigelian hernia, and medial thigh pain indicates obturator nerve compression seen in an obturator hernia.
Recognizing these classic presentations is essential for diagnosing rarer abdominal wall and pelvic hernias.

Key Concept

Anatomical landmarks of abdominal wall and pelvic hernias
Question 817Question →

Lower extremity injuries frequently involve concurrent vascular, neurologic, or systemic complications that require distinct, time-sensitive interventions. Match each specific lower extremity trauma presentation with its most appropriate next step in management or definitive intervention.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Posterior knee dislocation post-reduction; the popliteal pulse is palpable, the injured dorsalis pedis systolic pressure is 105105 mmHg, and the uninjured brachial systolic pressure is 120120 mmHg.
Posterior knee dislocation post-reduction; the extremity is cool with absent pedal pulses, and a rapidly expanding pulsatile mass is palpated in the popliteal fossa.
Closed diaphyseal tibial fracture treated with a long-leg cast; the patient exhibits crescendo pain triggered specifically by passive plantar flexion of the ankle.
Comminuted mid-shaft femur fracture; the patient develops acute-onset tachypnea, progressive confusion, and a non-blanching axillary petechial rash 3636 hours post-injury.

Matches

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Answer

The presentation with an ABI of 0.8750.875 pairs with CTA; the presentation with hard vascular signs pairs with immediate surgical exploration; the presentation with crescendo stretch pain pairs with cast bivalving and fasciotomy; and the presentation with a petechial rash and hypoxia pairs with supportive care.
Each lower extremity trauma presentation describes a distinct clinical syndrome with a highly specific, protocol-driven next step in management based on Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) and surgical principles.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the ankle-brachial index (ABI) for the patient with a palpable pulse.
The ABI is 105120=0.875\frac{105}{120} = 0.875.
An ABI <0.9< 0.9 establishes the presence of a soft sign of vascular injury, meaning the patient requires further vascular imaging (CTA) rather than immediate surgery.
2
Identify the clinical significance of an absent pulse and expanding hematoma in a traumatized limb.
These are definitively recognized as hard signs of vascular injury.
Hard signs of vascular injury mandate immediate operative intervention to restore perfusion and save the limb.
3
Analyze the localized anatomic symptoms of crescendo pain and severe pain on passive plantar flexion in a casted limb.
These symptoms localize to acute compartment syndrome of the anterior lower leg.
Passive plantar flexion stretches the anterior compartment. The immediate treatment must relieve external pressure by bivalving the cast, proceeding to fasciotomy if unresolved.
4
Correlate the systemic triad of tachypnea, altered mental status, and petechial rash following a femur fracture.
This constellation is diagnostic of fat embolism syndrome.
Fat embolism is a systemic inflammatory and obstructive complication requiring supportive mechanical ventilation and monitoring rather than surgical intervention.

Key Concept

Triage and definitive management of limb-threatening and systemic complications following severe lower extremity orthopedic trauma.
Question 818Question →

Match the following clinical presentations of abdominal pathology with their most appropriate definitive surgical or procedural management.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 54-year-old female with a history of biliary colic now presents with fever, hypotension, altered mentation, and a dilated common bile duct on ultrasound.
A 71-year-old male with atrial fibrillation presents with peritonitis, severe lactic acidosis, and pneumatosis intestinalis on computed tomography.
A 48-year-old male recovering from necrotizing pancreatitis presents 8 weeks later with early satiety, nausea, and a 9-cm encapsulated retrogastric fluid collection.
A 28-year-old male with medically refractory ulcerative colitis develops hemodynamic instability and a 9-cm transverse colon dilation non-responsive to medical therapy.

Matches

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Answer

The correct matches align specific life-threatening or symptomatic abdominal conditions with their definitive, guideline-directed procedural or surgical interventions.
Each correct pairing links the pathology to standard-of-care management. Acute ascending cholangitis requires rapid biliary decompression via ERCP. Mesenteric ischemia with pneumatosis indicates transmural necrosis, demanding emergent bowel resection. A pseudocyst present for over 4-6 weeks develops a mature capsule, making it amenable to endoscopic internal drainage. Refractory toxic megacolon is managed with a subtotal colectomy and end ileostomy as a damage-control procedure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each clinical presentation to identify the underlying primary diagnosis and assess the patient's hemodynamic status.
Identified diagnoses: 1) Severe acute ascending cholangitis, 2) Acute mesenteric ischemia with bowel infarction, 3) Symptomatic mature pancreatic pseudocyst, 4) Toxic megacolon.
Establishing the precise diagnosis and illness severity is the prerequisite for determining surgical versus endoscopic management.
2
Determine the optimal procedural or surgical intervention for each diagnosis.
Matched acute cholangitis to ERCP, necrotic mesenteric ischemia to laparotomy/resection, mature pseudocyst to cystogastrostomy, and toxic megacolon to subtotal colectomy.
Surgical guidelines dictate specific approaches to achieve definitive source control while minimizing operative morbidity in unstable patients.

Key Concept

Triage and definitive operative management of acute abdominal and gastrointestinal emergencies based on clinical stability and diagnostic imaging.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 819Question →

An otherwise healthy 42-year-old male undergoes an uncomplicated open appendectomy for acute appendicitis. Approximately 24 hours after the procedure, the nursing staff notes a new-onset temperature of 38.4°C (101.1°F). The patient reports mild incisional pain but denies dyspnea, cough, dysuria, or calf pain. Blood pressure is 128/76 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 16/min. The surgical dressing is dry and intact, with no surrounding erythema. Auscultation of the chest reveals diminished breath sounds over both lung bases. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient's elevated temperature?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Atelectasis

Answer

Atelectasis is the most likely cause of this patient's early postoperative fever.
Atelectasis is the collapse of alveoli, which frequently occurs early in the postoperative period due to shallow breathing, pain, or prolonged recumbency. It is the most common cause of fever on postoperative days 1 to 2. The clinical presentation of a low-grade fever combined with diminished breath sounds at the lung bases exactly 24 hours after surgery makes atelectasis the most likely etiology.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the timing of the fever in relation to the surgery.
The fever occurred approximately 24 hours (postoperative day 1) after the appendectomy.
The postoperative day is the most critical factor in determining the likely etiology of a postoperative fever.
2
Evaluate the clinical findings and physical examination.
The patient has diminished breath sounds at the lung bases with an intact, clean surgical site and no other localizing symptoms.
Physical examination helps confirm the suspected source of fever based on the timeline.
3
Correlate the timeline and findings with common postoperative complications.
Atelectasis (the 'Wind' in the 5 Ws mnemonic) classically presents on postoperative days 1-2 with diminished basilar breath sounds.
Matching the clinical picture to established patterns identifies the most likely diagnosis.

Key Concept

The most common cause of fever within the first 24 to 48 hours postoperatively is atelectasis.
Estimated Time:45s
Question 820Question →

A 59-year-old man is evaluated in the recovery unit four hours after undergoing a percutaneous coronary intervention via a right common femoral artery approach. He now complains of sudden, intense pain in his right foot and numbness in his toes. His vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the right foot is mottled, pale, and cold to the touch compared to the left. The right femoral pulse is bounding. The right popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses are not palpable and are absent on handheld Doppler ultrasound. He exhibits weakened plantar flexion of the right foot and decreased sensation over the dorsal and plantar surfaces. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate continuous intravenous heparin infusion

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to initiate continuous intravenous heparin infusion.
This patient presents with classic signs of acute limb ischemia (ALI) following a femoral artery puncture, likely due to a local arterial thrombosis, dissection flap, or distal embolization. The presence of sensory loss and motor weakness indicates an immediately threatened limb. The absolute first step in management, once ALI is clinically diagnosed and before any imaging or definitive surgical intervention, is the initiation of systemic anticoagulation with intravenous unfractionated heparin. This prevents the propagation of the existing thrombus, prevents secondary microvascular thrombosis, and buys time while preparing the patient for emergent surgical embolectomy or revascularization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical syndrome from the presentation.
The patient exhibits pain, pallor, poikilothermia, pulselessness, paresthesia, and weakness, which are the classic "6 Ps" of Acute Limb Ischemia (ALI).
Recognizing the symptom constellation is necessary to establish the diagnosis following femoral artery instrumentation.
2
Determine the severity and category of the ischemia.
The presence of sensory loss and motor weakness classifies this as a Rutherford Category IIb (immediately threatened) limb.
The severity dictates the urgency of intervention; threatened limbs require immediate action to prevent irreversible necrosis.
3
Select the most appropriate initial pharmacological step.
Systemic anticoagulation with intravenous heparin must be administered immediately.
Heparin prevents further propagation of the thrombus and preserves the distal microcirculation while the surgical team prepares for definitive revascularization.

Key Concept

Initial management of acute limb ischemia

Alternative Method

In cases where the limb is viable and not immediately threatened (Rutherford Category I), catheter-directed thrombolysis or further imaging might be considered, but systemic heparin remains the first pharmacological step universally.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
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