A 68-year-old woman is evaluated in the outpatient clinic prior to a scheduled left eye cataract extraction (phacoemulsification). The surgery is planned to take place under local anesthesia in 2 weeks. Her medical history is notable for mild primary hypertension and osteoarthritis of the knees. Current medications include lisinopril and as-needed acetaminophen. The patient leads an active lifestyle and reports briskly walking 2 to 3 miles every morning without experiencing chest pain, dyspnea, palpitations, or lightheadedness. Vital signs today are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals clear lungs bilaterally, a regular heart rate and rhythm with no murmurs, and no peripheral edema. In the context of providing high-value, cost-conscious care, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Proceed with the scheduled surgery without additional preoperative testingAnswer
- BObtain a baseline posterior-anterior and lateral chest radiograph
- CObtain a resting 12-lead electrocardiogram
- DOrder a comprehensive metabolic panel and complete blood count
- ERefer the patient for formal cardiology preoperative clearance