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Question 821Question →

A 64-year-old woman comes to the clinic due to a 4-month history of frequent, watery, non-bloody diarrhea. She reports having up to 8 loose bowel movements per day, which occasionally wake her from sleep. She has no fever, abdominal pain, nausea, or unintended weight loss. Her past medical history is notable for osteoarthritis, for which she takes daily ibuprofen, and hypertension managed with lisinopril. Vital signs are within normal limits. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Laboratory studies, including a complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, and thyroid function tests, are normal. Stool studies are negative for infectious etiologies. A colonoscopy reveals an entirely normal-appearing colonic mucosa throughout. Random biopsies are obtained from the right and left colon. Histopathologic examination of the biopsy specimens shows a preserved crypt architecture, an increased number of intraepithelial lymphocytes, chronic inflammation in the lamina propria, and a notably thickened subepithelial eosinophilic band measuring 15 micrometers (normal is typically less than 5 micrometers). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis based on these histopathologic findings?

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Answer: Collagenous colitis

Answer

Collagenous colitis
The patient's clinical presentation of chronic watery diarrhea with a macroscopically normal colonoscopy and specific biopsy findings is characteristic of collagenous colitis. Microscopic colitis has two main subtypes: collagenous colitis and lymphocytic colitis. Both present similarly (frequent in older women, often associated with NSAID or PPI use) and have normal gross endoscopic appearances. The distinguishing feature is purely histopathological. The biopsy in this patient reveals a thickened subepithelial eosinophilic (collagen) band measuring >10 micrometers, which is the pathognomonic diagnostic criterion for collagenous colitis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation.
The patient is an older adult female presenting with chronic, watery, non-bloody diarrhea and a history of daily NSAID use.
Identifying the demographic and chronicity of diarrhea narrows the differential diagnosis to functional, medication-induced, or inflammatory causes.
2
Evaluate the endoscopic findings.
The colonoscopy demonstrates an entirely normal-appearing colonic mucosa.
A macroscopically normal colon essentially rules out classic inflammatory bowel disease (like Crohn disease or ulcerative colitis) and points toward microscopic colitis.
3
Interpret the biopsy results.
Histopathology shows preserved crypt architecture, increased intraepithelial lymphocytes, and a thickened subepithelial eosinophilic band (15 micrometers).
The thickened subepithelial collagen band is the pathognomonic finding that differentiates collagenous colitis from lymphocytic colitis.

Key Concept

Microscopic colitis variants are distinguished histopathologically; collagenous colitis is defined by a thickened subepithelial collagen band, whereas lymphocytic colitis lacks this feature despite both showing intraepithelial lymphocytosis.
Question 822Question →

Evaluate the following acute clinical presentations. For each patient scenario, identify the single most appropriate diagnostic imaging study to order.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 24-year-old female with sudden-onset right lower quadrant pain, vaginal spotting, and a positive urine pregnancy test.
A 45-year-old male with severe, colicky left flank pain radiating to the groin and microscopic hematuria.
A 68-year-old male with atrial fibrillation who developed sudden, severe periumbilical pain that is out of proportion to the benign abdominal exam findings.
A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks gestation with suspected acute appendicitis following an inconclusive initial right lower quadrant sonogram.

Matches

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Answer

The correct matches are: The pregnant patient with spotting requires a pelvic ultrasound. The patient with suspected nephrolithiasis requires a non-contrast CT. The patient with suspected mesenteric ischemia requires CT angiography. The pregnant patient with suspected appendicitis and an equivocal ultrasound requires an MRI without contrast.
Each imaging modality is chosen to maximize diagnostic yield while minimizing patient risk. Pelvic ultrasound is safe and sensitive for early pregnancy complications. Non-contrast CT best identifies renal stones. CT angiography visualizes vascular occlusions in suspected ischemia. MRI avoids radiation in pregnancy when an initial ultrasound is nondiagnostic.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first scenario (young female, positive pregnancy test, abdominal pain).
Identify high risk for ectopic pregnancy.
Requires radiation-free imaging to immediately identify intrauterine versus extrauterine gestation.
2
Analyze the second scenario (colicky flank pain, hematuria).
Identify classic presentation of nephrolithiasis.
Requires high-sensitivity imaging to detect calcified stones without obscuration by intravenous contrast.
3
Analyze the third scenario (atrial fibrillation, pain out of proportion to exam).
Identify high suspicion for acute mesenteric ischemia.
Requires visualization of the mesenteric vasculature using arterial phase contrast.
4
Analyze the fourth scenario (pregnant, suspected appendicitis, equivocal ultrasound).
Identify need for definitive cross-sectional imaging without ionizing radiation.
MRI is safe in pregnancy and provides excellent soft-tissue contrast to visualize the appendix when ultrasound fails.

Key Concept

Selecting the most appropriate imaging modality requires integrating the suspected pathology with patient-specific factors, such as pregnancy status, radiation risk, and the need for vascular visualization.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 823Question →

A 3838-year-old woman presents to the clinic with progressive weight gain, facial fullness, and proximal muscle weakness over the past 88 months. She also reports irregular menstrual periods and easy bruising. Blood pressure is 155/95155/95 mmHg, and BMI is 3232 kg/m 2^2. Physical examination reveals facial plethora, supraclavicular fat pads, and wide violaceous striae on her abdomen. There is trace peripheral edema. The physician suspects an endogenous endocrine etiology for her symptoms.

Arrange the following diagnostic steps in the most appropriate sequential order for the comprehensive workup of this patient's suspected condition, from initial biochemical screening to final definitive localization.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: 1) Measurement of 24-hour urinary free cortisol or late-night salivary cortisol, 2) Measurement of plasma ACTH, 3) MRI of the pituitary gland, 4) Bilateral inferior petrosal sinus sampling.
The correct diagnostic sequence for Cushing syndrome begins with establishing the presence of hypercortisolism using biochemical screening (e.g., 24-hour urinary free cortisol, late-night salivary cortisol, or low-dose dexamethasone suppression test). Once hypercortisolism is confirmed, a plasma ACTH level is drawn to determine if the condition is ACTH-dependent or ACTH-independent. If ACTH is elevated or inappropriately normal, it indicates an ACTH-dependent source, prompting a pituitary MRI as the initial localizing study. If the MRI is unequivocally positive for a macroadenoma (>10>10 mm), the diagnosis of Cushing disease is confirmed. However, if the MRI is negative, equivocal, or shows a microadenoma (<6<6 mm), bilateral inferior petrosal sinus sampling (IPSS) is required to definitively differentiate a pituitary source from an ectopic ACTH-secreting tumor.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Establish hypercortisolism
Confirms the clinical suspicion of Cushing syndrome
Biochemical confirmation is strictly required before any etiology-specific testing to avoid false-positive diagnoses.
2
Determine ACTH dependence
Differentiates ACTH-dependent versus ACTH-independent causes
This step guides whether to look at the adrenal glands (independent) or the pituitary/ectopic sources (dependent).
3
Perform localizing imaging
Evaluates for a pituitary adenoma
Pituitary MRI is the first-line imaging study for ACTH-dependent Cushing syndrome (Cushing disease).
4
Perform invasive localization
Definitively differentiates pituitary from ectopic ACTH production
IPSS is indicated when MRI is equivocal or shows a lesion <6<6 mm, as non-functioning pituitary incidentalomas are common in the general population.

Key Concept

The diagnostic workup for Cushing syndrome proceeds in a strict sequence: confirm hypercortisolism, determine ACTH dependence, and then perform anatomical/invasive localization.
Question 824Question →

A 28-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to sudden-onset, severe left lower quadrant abdominal pain that started 2 hours ago. She reports associated dizziness, lightheadedness, and mild vaginal spotting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 88/56 mm Hg, a heart rate of 118/min, and a respiratory rate of 20/min. Physical examination reveals a pale appearing patient with diffuse lower abdominal tenderness, guarding, and rebound tenderness. A bedside urine pregnancy test is positive. A transvaginal ultrasound is immediately performed and demonstrates an empty uterine cavity, a 4-cm complex left adnexal mass, and a large volume of echogenic free fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac. Based on the interpretation of these imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Emergent diagnostic laparoscopy

Answer

Emergent diagnostic laparoscopy
This patient's presentation of sudden-onset abdominal pain, hypotension, and tachycardia in the setting of a positive pregnancy test is highly concerning for a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. The interpretation of the transvaginal ultrasound confirms this diagnosis by revealing an empty uterine cavity, an adnexal mass, and echogenic free fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac. Echogenic free fluid in this context typically represents acute intraperitoneal hemorrhage (hemoperitoneum). When imaging definitively confirms a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, especially in a hemodynamically unstable patient, the most appropriate next step is emergent surgical exploration, typically via diagnostic laparoscopy, to control the bleeding and remove the ectopic tissue.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the clinical presentation and vital signs.
The patient is a reproductive-aged woman with amenorrhea, sudden severe abdominal pain, hypotension (88/56 mm Hg), and tachycardia (118/min).
Identifying hemodynamic instability is the first critical step in triaging emergency presentations and prioritizing interventions.
2
Interpret the transvaginal ultrasound imaging results.
The imaging shows an empty uterus, an adnexal mass, and echogenic free fluid (representing active hemoperitoneum) in the setting of a positive pregnancy test.
Imaging findings must be correlated with the clinical picture to establish a definitive diagnosis of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
3
Determine the appropriate management based on the interpreted imaging.
The presence of hemoperitoneum on ultrasound combined with hemodynamic instability mandates immediate surgical intervention to achieve hemostasis.
Definitive surgical management is the only appropriate action to prevent fatal hemorrhagic shock.

Key Concept

Transvaginal ultrasound showing an empty uterus, an adnexal mass, and echogenic free pelvic fluid in a hypotensive pregnant patient indicates a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, which requires emergent surgical exploration.
Question 825Question →

Emergency medical services transport a 55-year-old male to the resuscitation bay after he vomited approximately one liter of bright red blood at a local restaurant. The patient's wife notes he has a history of decompensated liver cirrhosis due to chronic alcohol use and has been hospitalized previously for ascites. Upon arrival, the patient is lethargic, responds only to painful stimuli, and is actively coughing up blood clots. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F), heart rate of 128/min, blood pressure of 82/45 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 26/min, and oxygen saturation of 91% on room air. Examination shows scleral icterus, spider angiomas on the chest, and a distended, non-tender abdomen. Peripheral intravenous access is established by the nursing staff. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

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Answer: Perform endotracheal intubation

Answer

The most appropriate immediate next step is to perform endotracheal intubation.
This patient presents with hemorrhagic shock secondary to a massive upper gastrointestinal bleed, highly suspected to be variceal in origin given his history of decompensated cirrhosis. He is lethargic, responds only to painful stimuli, and is actively vomiting blood clots. In any trauma or critical care resuscitation, the initial approach must follow the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation). Because this patient has a severely depressed level of consciousness and ongoing hematemesis, he is unable to protect his airway and is at imminent risk of massive aspiration and asphyxiation. Therefore, the immediate next best step is endotracheal intubation for airway protection. Once the airway is securely established, volume resuscitation with blood products, specific pharmacologic therapy, and definitive endoscopic intervention can safely proceed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) in the setting of hemorrhagic shock and altered mental status.
The patient is lethargic, responding only to pain, and actively vomiting blood clots, indicating an unprotected airway.
To determine the immediate life-threatening risk before initiating disease-specific treatments.
2
Prioritize airway protection over circulatory resuscitation and diagnostic procedures.
Endotracheal intubation is selected as the primary intervention.
A patient with an unprotected airway and active upper gastrointestinal bleeding is at an exceptionally high risk of fatal aspiration and asphyxiation.
3
Plan subsequent stabilization and diagnostic steps.
Blood transfusion, pharmacologic therapy (e.g., octreotide, antibiotics), and endoscopy will follow airway securement.
Circulation management and definitive hemorrhage control can safely proceed only after establishing a patent airway.

Key Concept

In a patient presenting with severe upper gastrointestinal bleeding and altered mental status, securing the airway with endotracheal intubation is the absolute first priority to prevent aspiration, superseding volume resuscitation and diagnostic endoscopy.
Question 826Question →

A rapid response team is called to the bedside of a 45-year-old hospitalized man who developed sudden-onset respiratory distress. The patient was admitted yesterday for community-acquired pneumonia and was receiving his second dose of intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam. Ten minutes into the infusion, he began complaining of severe throat tightness, shortness of breath, and feeling dizzy. The bedside nurse immediately stopped the antibiotic infusion and applied supplemental oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.

Vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 78/42 mm Hg, a heart rate of 138/min, a respiratory rate of 28/min, and an oxygen saturation of 91% on the non-rebreather mask. Physical examination shows diffuse urticaria over the trunk and extremities, periorbital edema, and audible inspiratory stridor with widespread expiratory wheezing.

Which of the following are the most appropriate immediate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select exactly 2 options)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Administer intramuscular epinephrine in the anterolateral thigh; Administer a rapid intravenous bolus of isotonic crystalloid

Answer

The correct immediate interventions are administering intramuscular epinephrine in the anterolateral thigh and administering a rapid intravenous bolus of isotonic crystalloid.
This patient is experiencing acute anaphylactic shock, characterized by distributive shock (hypotension, tachycardia) and impending airway compromise (stridor, wheezing) following exposure to a new medication. The cornerstone of immediate stabilization is intramuscular epinephrine, which provides potent alpha-1 agonist effects to increase vascular tone and beta-2 agonist effects to cause bronchodilation and decrease mast cell mediator release. Simultaneously, the patient's profound hypotension requires aggressive volume resuscitation with rapid intravenous isotonic crystalloid boluses to restore intravascular volume lost to sudden, massive capillary permeability.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and vital signs.
The patient exhibits stridor, severe wheezing, profound hypotension (78/42 mm Hg), and urticaria immediately following intravenous antibiotic administration.
This confirms a diagnosis of acute anaphylactic shock with both impending airway compromise and severe distributive shock.
2
Identify the primary physiological targets for stabilization.
The primary targets are reversing severe vasodilation and preventing airway occlusion.
Airway, Breathing, and Circulation (ABCs) take absolute precedence in acute resuscitation.
3
Select the most appropriate simultaneous interventions.
Intramuscular epinephrine and rapid intravenous fluid boluses are selected.
Epinephrine provides rapid alpha-1 mediated vasoconstriction and beta-2 mediated bronchodilation, while isotonic crystalloids restore depleted intravascular volume.

Key Concept

The initial stabilization of anaphylactic shock requires the simultaneous administration of intramuscular epinephrine and aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation to address cardiovascular collapse and airway compromise.
Question 827Question →

Match each classic radiographic finding with the most likely rheumatologic or joint disorder it represents.

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Items

"Punched-out" periarticular erosions with overhanging cortical edges and relative preservation of joint space
Asymmetric joint space narrowing, subchondral bone sclerosis, and marginal osteophyte formation
Symmetric joint space narrowing, periarticular osteopenia, and marginal bone erosions
Linear or punctate radiodense deposits within the articular cartilage and menisci (chondrocalcinosis)

Matches

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Answer

Properly pair the imaging findings to their distinct pathologies: punched-out erosions with Gout; asymmetric wear and osteophytes with Osteoarthritis; symmetric wear and osteopenia with Rheumatoid arthritis; and chondrocalcinosis with Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease.
The correct pairings align the pathognomonic radiographic descriptions with their established diseases: osteoarthritis features mechanical asymmetric narrowing and osteophytes; rheumatoid arthritis features symmetric inflammatory narrowing and osteopenia; gout features distinct erosions with overhanging edges; and CPPD features diagnostic chondrocalcinosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the pattern of joint space involvement and bone density.
Identify whether the narrowing is symmetric (suggesting an inflammatory process) or asymmetric (suggesting a mechanical process), and note any osteopenia.
This primary distinction differentiates mechanical osteoarthritis from systemic inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis.
2
Identify specific pathognomonic imaging markers for distinct crystal arthropathies.
Note the presence of 'punched-out' erosions with overhanging edges or distinct cartilage calcification.
These findings directly point to gout or calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease, respectively, rather than general wear or systemic inflammation.
3
Match the identified radiographic constellations to the correct clinical diagnoses.
The final pairings are successfully completed based on these classic imaging criteria.
Accurate interpretation of these specific imaging findings is essential for differentiating joint disorders and initiating the correct long-term management.

Key Concept

Radiographic differentiation of common arthropathies based on joint space narrowing patterns, erosive features, and bone density changes.
Question 828Question →

A 29-year-old woman, G2P1, at 24 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset shortness of breath and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. Her heart rate is 112/min, respiratory rate is 22/min, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Physical examination reveals clear lungs bilaterally, normal heart sounds, and no asymmetric lower extremity edema, erythema, or tenderness. An electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia. You are planning the diagnostic pathway to evaluate for a suspected pulmonary embolism while minimizing fetal and maternal radiation exposure.

Arrange the following diagnostic modalities in the correct sequential order as recommended by current clinical guidelines, proceeding to the next step only if the preceding test is negative, normal, or non-diagnostic.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: 1) Chest radiograph, 2) Bilateral lower extremity compression ultrasonography, 3) Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan, and 4) Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA).
In a pregnant patient with suspected pulmonary embolism, diagnostic sequencing focuses on minimizing radiation. A chest radiograph is universally first to rule out other acute pathologies. If normal, bilateral lower extremity compression ultrasonography is performed because a positive finding eliminates the need for thoracic imaging. If negative, a V/Q scan is preferred due to lower maternal breast radiation. CTPA is reserved for non-diagnostic V/Q scans or patients with initially abnormal chest radiographs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Perform a chest radiograph.
Rules out alternative pulmonary pathology and triages the type of advanced imaging to be used later.
A normal chest radiograph makes a V/Q scan the preferred subsequent modality, whereas an abnormal radiograph would shift the algorithm directly toward CTPA.
2
Perform bilateral lower extremity compression ultrasonography.
Evaluates the patient for the presence of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Identifying a DVT confirms the diagnosis of venous thromboembolism, warranting immediate anticoagulation and negating the need for further radiation-exposing thoracic imaging.
3
Perform a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan.
Assesses for pulmonary perfusion mismatches indicative of a pulmonary embolism.
Preferred over CTPA in pregnant patients with a normal chest radiograph because it delivers significantly less radiation to the maternal breast tissue, which is highly radiosensitive during pregnancy.
4
Perform a computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA).
Provides definitive anatomical visualization of the pulmonary vasculature.
Utilized as a definitive test only if the preceding V/Q scan yields indeterminate or non-diagnostic results, ensuring radiation exposure is justified.

Key Concept

Diagnostic sequencing for suspected pulmonary embolism in pregnancy
Question 829Question →

Match each acute clinical presentation with the most appropriate and urgent next diagnostic step.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 62-year-old man with a history of hypertension presenting with sudden-onset "tearing" chest pain radiating to the back and asymmetric arm blood pressures.
A 24-year-old woman presenting with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and a positive urine pregnancy test.
A 55-year-old man with known cirrhosis presenting with new-onset fever, diffuse abdominal pain, worsening ascites, and mild encephalopathy.
A 68-year-old woman presenting to the emergency department with acute right-sided hemiparesis and global aphasia that began 45 minutes ago.
A 35-year-old intravenous drug user with fever, a new holosystolic cardiac murmur, and suspected infective endocarditis who has not yet received any antimicrobial treatment.

Matches

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Answer

1 matches with CTA of the chest; 2 matches with Transvaginal ultrasonography; 3 matches with Diagnostic paracentesis; 4 matches with Non-contrast CT of the head; 5 matches with Multiple sets of peripheral blood cultures.
Each clinical presentation is matched with its most critical initial diagnostic step based on standardized medical guidelines, focusing on rapid stabilization, avoidance of harm, and accurate diagnosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the 62-year-old man for acute aortic dissection based on his tearing chest pain and asymmetric blood pressures.
Computed tomography angiography (CTA) of the chest is selected.
CTA provides rapid, definitive imaging to identify the intimal flap and classify the dissection.
2
Assess the 24-year-old pregnant woman with right lower quadrant pain.
Transvaginal ultrasonography is selected.
It is the safest imaging modality to visualize an ectopic pregnancy while avoiding radiation exposure to the fetus.
3
Analyze the 55-year-old man with cirrhosis, fever, and worsening ascites for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP).
Diagnostic paracentesis is selected.
Ascitic fluid analysis is necessary to confirm SBP (absolute neutrophil count > 250/mm³) before initiating antibiotics.
4
Review the presentation of the 68-year-old woman with acute stroke symptoms onset 45 minutes ago.
Non-contrast CT of the head is selected.
A non-contrast CT rapidly rules out intracranial hemorrhage, which is required before any thrombolytic therapy can be considered.
5
Examine the case of the 35-year-old intravenous drug user with signs of infective endocarditis.
Multiple sets of peripheral blood cultures are selected.
Cultures must be drawn prior to starting empiric antibiotics to ensure accurate pathogen identification and susceptibility testing.

Key Concept

Appropriate test sequencing in acute clinical scenarios requires prioritizing tests that rapidly identify life-threatening conditions (e.g., non-contrast CT for stroke, CTA for aortic dissection) or tests that must precede therapeutic interventions (e.g., blood cultures before antibiotics).
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 830Question →

A 26-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by paramedics after being found unresponsive in her apartment. Her roommate reports finding empty bottles of amitriptyline and diphenhydramine on her nightstand. En route to the hospital, the patient had a 3-minute generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Upon arrival, she is actively seizing. Vital signs are temperature 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure 82/50 mm Hg, pulse 138/min, and respirations 8/min. Pulse oximetry shows 88% on room air. Pupils are 7 mm bilaterally and sluggishly reactive. Mucous membranes are dry. An immediate electrocardiogram reveals sinus tachycardia with a QRS duration of 165 msec and a prominent terminal R wave in lead aVR. Which of the following are the most appropriate immediate simultaneous steps in the stabilization of this patient? (Select 3)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Endotracheal intubation; Intravenous lorazepam; Intravenous sodium bicarbonate

Answer

The correct steps are endotracheal intubation, intravenous lorazepam, and intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
This patient presents with a severe mixed overdose (amitriptyline and diphenhydramine) resulting in status epilepticus, respiratory failure, and severe sodium channel blockade (QRS of 165 msec). Initial stabilization requires a simultaneous, multi-pronged approach. First, the patient's actively seizing state, low respiratory rate, and hypoxia mandate immediate endotracheal intubation for airway protection and ventilation. Second, the seizures must be aborted immediately with intravenous lorazepam, as prolonged seizing causes metabolic acidosis that further increases TCA-mediated cardiac toxicity. Third, the markedly widened QRS complex indicates impending ventricular dysrhythmia due to myocardial sodium channel blockade; intravenous sodium bicarbonate is the specific antidote required to narrow the QRS and stabilize the cardiac membrane.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs).
The patient is hypoxic (SpO2 88%), hypoventilating (RR 8/min), and has an unprotected airway due to active seizures.
Endotracheal intubation is required immediately to secure the airway, ensure adequate oxygenation, and prevent aspiration.
2
Address the active status epilepticus.
Intravenous lorazepam should be administered.
Seizures exacerbate metabolic acidosis, which in turn worsens the cardiac toxicity of tricyclic antidepressants. Benzodiazepines are the first-line therapy to abort seizures.
3
Evaluate the electrocardiogram and treat potential fatal arrhythmias.
The ECG shows a widened QRS complex (165 msec) and an R wave in aVR, classic for TCA toxicity. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate should be given.
Sodium bicarbonate overcomes sodium channel blockade by providing a high sodium load and alkalinizing the serum, which favors the non-ionized form of the drug, thus narrowing the QRS and preventing arrhythmias.

Key Concept

Simultaneous resuscitation in severe tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose requires airway protection, seizure control with benzodiazepines, and QRS narrowing with sodium bicarbonate.
Question 831Question →

Review the following complex clinical presentations. Match each patient scenario with the single most appropriate next imaging modality required to localize pathology, stage disease, or guide definitive management.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 45-year-old man with recurrent refractory duodenal ulcers. Fasting serum gastrin is 1,500 pg/mL, and a secretin stimulation test is positive. Initial high-resolution abdominal ultrasound and non-contrast computed tomography are unremarkable.
A 65-year-old man with normal renal function presenting with an expanding, pulsatile mid-abdominal mass. He underwent endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) for an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm four years ago.
A 48-year-old woman with recurrent nephrolithiasis and a serum calcium of 11.4 mg/dL. Intact parathyroid hormone is elevated. A specialized high-resolution ultrasonography of the neck fails to demonstrate any glandular enlargement.
A 72-year-old man with newly diagnosed, asymptomatic, biopsy-proven prostate adenocarcinoma. Digital rectal examination shows clinically localized disease, but his Gleason score is 9 (4+5) and serum prostate-specific antigen is 35 ng/mL.

Matches

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Answer

Match the gastrinoma scenario to Gallium-68 DOTATATE PET/CT; the post-EVAR expanding mass to Multiphase CTA; the ultrasound-negative hyperparathyroidism to Technetium-99m sestamibi scintigraphy; and the high-risk prostate cancer to Technetium-99m MDP bone scintigraphy.
Each specific clinical scenario requires highly targeted, advanced imaging protocols due to the limitations of standard modalities. Standard cross-sectional scans lack the functional sensitivity required for small neuroendocrine tumors (requiring somatostatin receptor mapping via DOTATATE) or ectopic parathyroid adenomas (requiring mitochondrial retention mapping via Sestamibi). Similarly, oncologic staging for osteoblastic metastases requires targeted bone matrix imaging (MDP), and vascular endoleaks require hemodynamic phase timing (multiphase CTA).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Establish the underlying primary diagnosis for each vignette based on the provided clinical, laboratory, and histopathologic data.
The diagnoses are, respectively: an occult gastrinoma, a suspected EVAR endoleak, an occult parathyroid adenoma, and high-risk localized prostate cancer.
Diagnostic imaging pathways are highly protocolized based on the exact biochemical or pathologic nature of the disease entity.
2
Determine the limitation of the initial imaging described (or implied) and select the advanced modality designed to overcome it.
Standard CT/US lack receptor/metabolic specificity for small neuroendocrine or parathyroid tumors, necessitating DOTATATE and sestamibi respectively. Standard single-phase arterial CT misses delayed vascular flow, requiring multiphase CTA. Asymptomatic bone metastases require functional osteoblastic screening with MDP scintigraphy.
Advanced test sequencing in subspecialty medicine relies on matching radiotracer pharmacology or specific scanning phases to the physiologic behavior of the target pathology.

Key Concept

Advanced test sequencing often relies on specialized functional or multiphase imaging to localize occult endocrine tumors, stage high-risk malignancies, and classify delayed post-surgical vascular complications when standard anatomical imaging is insufficient.
Estimated Time:2m 30s
Question 832Question →

A 52-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 2-year history of progressive, severe proximal muscle weakness, deep bone pain, and multiple atraumatic rib fractures. Laboratory evaluation reveals the following:

Laboratory TestResultReference Range
Serum calcium9.2 mg/dL8.4-10.2 mg/dL
Serum phosphorus1.4 mg/dL2.5-4.5 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase285 U/L40-120 U/L
25-hydroxyvitamin D34 ng/mL20-50 ng/mL
Intact PTH45 pg/mL15-65 pg/mL
FGF23450 RU/mL< 180 RU/mL

A whole-body somatostatin receptor PET/CT scan demonstrates an intensely avid, 2.5-cm soft tissue mass in the plantar aspect of his left foot. The patient undergoes a wide local excision of the lesion.

Which of the following pathologic and immunohistochemical findings are characteristic of this patient's most likely diagnosis? (Select all that apply)

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Answer: The presence of bland, uniform spindle cells embedded in a distinctive 'grungy', basophilic, calcified matrix; Diffuse immunohistochemical expression of fibroblast growth factor 23 (FGF23) and somatostatin receptor 2A (SSTR2A)

Answer

The correct findings include the presence of bland spindle cells in a distinctive 'grungy', basophilic, calcified matrix, as well as diffuse immunohistochemical expression of FGF23 and SSTR2A.
The patient's clinical presentation of hypophosphatemia, markedly elevated FGF23, and severe osteomalacia in the setting of a somatostatin receptor-avid soft tissue mass is diagnostic of tumor-induced (oncogenic) osteomalacia. This paraneoplastic syndrome is most commonly caused by a phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor (PMT). Histologically, PMTs are characterized by a proliferation of bland, uniform spindle cells embedded in a highly distinctive 'grungy' or flocculent basophilic, calcified matrix. Immunohistochemically, they typically show diffuse expression of FGF23 (which confirms the mechanism of renal phosphate wasting) and somatostatin receptor 2A (SSTR2A) (which explains the intense avidity on somatostatin-receptor functional imaging, such as DOTATATE PET scans).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical and laboratory presentation.
The patient has severe bone pain, fractures, isolated profound hypophosphatemia, elevated alkaline phosphatase, and normal calcium and PTH levels.
This specific metabolic profile rules out hyperparathyroidism and primary vitamin D deficiency, pointing directly to isolated renal phosphate wasting.
2
Correlate the metabolic profile with the specific biomarker and functional imaging findings.
The markedly elevated FGF23 level and the presence of a somatostatin receptor-avid soft tissue mass in the foot confirm a diagnosis of tumor-induced (oncogenic) osteomalacia.
FGF23 is a phosphatonin that directly inhibits renal phosphate reabsorption. Its ectopic secretion by a tumor causes this specific paraneoplastic syndrome.
3
Identify the characteristic histopathologic features of the causative neoplasm.
The most common causative tumor is a phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor (PMT), which is characterized histologically by bland spindle cells embedded in a distinctive 'grungy', smudgy, basophilic calcified matrix.
Recognizing this unique and highly specific morphologic appearance is essential for the definitive pathologic diagnosis of a PMT.
4
Determine the confirmatory immunohistochemical profile of the tumor.
PMTs typically demonstrate diffuse, strong positivity for FGF23 and somatostatin receptor 2A (SSTR2A).
Immunohistochemistry confirms the functional nature of the tumor (FGF23 production) and directly correlates with its specific functional imaging avidity (SSTR2A).

Key Concept

Diagnosis of phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor (PMT) causing oncogenic osteomalacia requires identifying its characteristic histologic finding (grungy calcified matrix) and specific immunohistochemical profile (FGF23 and SSTR2A positivity).
Question 833Question →

A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of dysuria, urinary frequency, and suprapubic discomfort. She is sexually active with a new partner. Vital signs are normal, and she is afebrile. Physical examination reveals mild suprapubic tenderness but no costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness. Arrange the following differential diagnoses in order from the most likely (highest pre-test probability) to the least likely for this patient's acute presentation.

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Answer

The correct sequence from most likely to least likely is: Uncomplicated acute cystitis, followed by Chlamydia trachomatis urethritis, Acute pyelonephritis, and finally Interstitial cystitis.
The correct ordering accurately reflects established clinical pre-test probabilities. Uncomplicated acute cystitis is the overwhelmingly most common cause of these localized, acute symptoms. STI-related urethritis serves as a strong secondary consideration due to the patient's sexual history. Pyelonephritis is a much lower probability without systemic infectious signs, and interstitial cystitis is incorrect to suspect during a 3-day acute presentation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's symptoms and acuity.
The patient has localized lower urinary tract symptoms (dysuria, frequency, suprapubic pain) lasting for a short duration of 3 days.
Establishing symptom acuity and localization is the first step in formulating a clinical differential diagnosis.
2
Identify the most probable cause based on epidemiological frequency.
Uncomplicated acute cystitis is identified as the highest probability.
It is by far the most common cause of acute lower urinary symptoms in young, afebrile women.
3
Evaluate secondary diagnostic possibilities based on provided risk factors.
Chlamydia urethritis is placed second.
Having a new sexual partner increases the risk of sexually transmitted infections causing urethritis, though it remains less statistically common than standard cystitis.
4
Rule down diagnoses that lack required clinical features.
Acute pyelonephritis is ranked third.
The absence of upper urinary tract signs (such as fever and costovertebral angle tenderness) significantly lowers its pre-test probability.
5
Place chronic conditions at the bottom for an acute presentation.
Interstitial cystitis is ranked last.
By definition, this diagnosis requires chronic symptoms lasting over 6 weeks, making it highly unlikely for an acute 3-day history.

Key Concept

Prioritization of differential diagnoses for acute dysuria based on epidemiological frequency, risk factors, and symptom duration.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 834Question →

A 64-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled hypertension presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset, severe, tearing pain between his shoulder blades that began 2 hours ago. He appears in severe distress. Blood pressure is 195/110 mmHg and heart rate is 108/min. The pulses are equal in all four extremities. An electrocardiogram is unremarkable. A non-contrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest reveals a crescent-shaped, high-attenuation area within the wall of the descending thoracic aorta, extending from just distal to the left subclavian artery down to the diaphragmatic hiatus. Subsequent CT angiography shows no intimal flap, no double lumen, and no contrast extravasation into the aortic wall. Based on the interpretation of these imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Answer: Intravenous esmolol infusion

Answer

Intravenous esmolol infusion
The correct answer is the administration of an intravenous beta-blocker. The patient's imaging demonstrates a crescent-shaped, high-attenuation area in the aortic wall on non-contrast CT, with no intimal flap or double lumen on CTA. These findings are the classic imaging hallmarks of an aortic intramural hematoma (IMH), a variant of acute aortic syndrome caused by rupture of the vasa vasorum. Because the IMH is located distal to the left subclavian artery, it is classified as a Stanford Type B IMH. For uncomplicated Type B IMH, the standard of care is immediate medical management with anti-impulse therapy. Intravenous beta-blockers (such as esmolol or labetalol) are the first-line agents to reduce both heart rate (target <60/min) and aortic wall shear stress (dP/dt), followed by vasodilators if blood pressure remains elevated.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Interpret the non-contrast CT and CT angiography findings.
Diagnosed as an aortic intramural hematoma (IMH).
The hyperdense crescent on non-contrast imaging without an intimal flap or double lumen on CTA distinguishes IMH from a classic aortic dissection or penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer.
2
Determine the anatomical classification based on the imaging description.
Classified as Stanford Type B IMH.
The lesion is located exclusively in the descending thoracic aorta, distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery.
3
Select the appropriate evidence-based management for this specific classification.
Select intravenous beta-blockade.
Uncomplicated Type B acute aortic syndromes require aggressive anti-impulse medical therapy (reducing heart rate and blood pressure) to prevent propagation, rather than immediate surgical or endovascular intervention.

Key Concept

Interpretation of aortic intramural hematoma (IMH) on CT imaging and the indication for immediate medical anti-impulse therapy in uncomplicated Stanford Type B cases.
Question 835Question →

During morning rounds, the nephrology service evaluates a newly admitted patient presenting with severe anasarca and new-onset renal dysfunction. The patient, a 5858-year-old individual with a history of hypertension, reports noticing persistently frothy urine for the past 1212 weeks. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 152/94 mmHg152/94 \text{ mmHg}. Laboratory studies demonstrate a serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL1.8 \text{ mg/dL} and a serum albumin level of 2.5 g/dL2.5 \text{ g/dL}. Urinalysis reveals 4+4+ proteinuria with microscopic hematuria, and a 2424-hour urine collection confirms the presence of 5.2 g5.2 \text{ g} of protein. A percutaneous renal biopsy is obtained. Light microscopy reveals prominent mesangial expansion and capillary wall thickening. Congo red staining demonstrates no evidence of apple-green birefringence under polarized light. Electron microscopy reveals dense deposits composed of randomly oriented, non-branching fibrils measuring 18 nm18 \text{ nm} to 22 nm22 \text{ nm} in diameter located within the mesangium and glomerular basement membranes. Immunohistochemical staining of the biopsy tissue shows strong positivity for DNAJB9. Based on these histopathologic and molecular findings, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: Fibrillary glomerulonephritis

Answer

Fibrillary glomerulonephritis
The correct answer is fibrillary glomerulonephritis. This diagnosis requires careful interpretation of a renal biopsy to differentiate it from other diseases that deposit structured materials in the glomerulus. The classic triad of findings for fibrillary glomerulonephritis includes: 1) randomly oriented, non-branching fibrils on electron microscopy that measure 10 to 30 nm10 \text{ to } 30 \text{ nm} in diameter (typically around 20 nm20 \text{ nm}); 2) a negative Congo red stain (which distinguishes it from amyloidosis); and 3) positive immunohistochemical staining for DNAJB9 (a highly specific molecular marker for the condition).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's clinical presentation and preliminary laboratory findings.
The patient has nephrotic-range proteinuria (5.2 g/day5.2 \text{ g/day}), hypoalbuminemia, severe edema, and renal dysfunction, establishing a nephrotic syndrome with concurrent nephritic features (hematuria, elevated creatinine).
Identifying the clinical syndrome narrows the differential diagnosis to specific glomerular diseases.
2
Evaluate the specific findings on light microscopy and special stains.
Light microscopy shows mesangial expansion. Importantly, the Congo red stain is negative.
A negative Congo red stain effectively rules out amyloidosis, which is a major cause of fibrillary deposits in the kidney.
3
Interpret the electron microscopy and immunohistochemistry details.
Electron microscopy shows non-branching, randomly arranged fibrils that are 18−22 nm18-22 \text{ nm} in diameter. Immunohistochemistry is strongly positive for DNAJB9.
The size and arrangement of the fibrils are pathognomonic. Amyloid fibrils are smaller (8−12 nm8-12 \text{ nm}) and Congo red positive. Immunotactoid deposits are larger (>30 nm>30 \text{ nm}) and highly organized in parallel microtubules. The presence of DNAJB9 is a highly sensitive and specific diagnostic marker for fibrillary glomerulonephritis.

Key Concept

Interpretation of renal biopsy electron microscopy and immunohistochemistry in fibrillary glomerular diseases
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 836Question →

A 44-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to a 3-hour history of severe, unrelenting pain in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. She says the pain started shortly after she ate a high-fat meal for lunch. The pain radiates to her right shoulder, and she reports one episode of vomiting. She has experienced similar, milder episodes in the past that resolved on their own. Her temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), blood pressure is 132/86 mmHg, heart rate is 98/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. On physical examination, the patient winces and abruptly halts her inspiration when the physician deeply palpates the right upper quadrant. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 12,500/mm³ and normal serum liver aminotransferases, total bilirubin, and lipase levels. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial imaging study to establish the diagnosis?

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Answer: Right upper quadrant ultrasonography

Answer

Right upper quadrant ultrasonography is the most appropriate initial imaging study.
The correct answer is right upper quadrant ultrasonography. This patient's clinical presentation of postprandial right upper quadrant pain radiating to the right shoulder, fever, leukocytosis, and a positive Murphy sign strongly suggests acute cholecystitis. Ultrasonography is the established standard-of-care and the most appropriate initial imaging study for suspected biliary tract disease. It effectively identifies gallstones, gallbladder wall thickening, and pericholecystic fluid, and allows the clinician to elicit a sonographic Murphy sign. It is preferred over other modalities because it is non-invasive, avoids ionizing radiation, is cost-effective, and provides immediate bedside information.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and physical examination findings.
The patient presents with postprandial right upper quadrant pain radiating to the shoulder, fever, leukocytosis, and a positive Murphy sign (inspiratory arrest upon palpation).
These classic findings strongly suggest a diagnosis of acute cholecystitis.
2
Identify the standard-of-care initial diagnostic imaging modality for this suspected condition.
Right upper quadrant ultrasonography is the preferred first-line imaging test.
Ultrasonography is highly sensitive and specific for detecting gallstones, gallbladder wall thickening, pericholecystic fluid, and eliciting a sonographic Murphy sign, while avoiding ionizing radiation.

Key Concept

First-line imaging evaluation for suspected acute cholecystitis
Question 837Question →

A university student is rushed to the resuscitation bay after being discovered seizing in a dormitory. Scattered empty bottles of amitriptyline and diphenhydramine were located nearby. The patient is currently exhibiting continuous generalized tonic-clonic movements. Physical examination reveals flushed, dry skin and symmetrically dilated pupils. Continuous monitoring displays a pulse of 142/min, blood pressure of 76/40 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation of 92% on room air. An electrocardiogram rhythm strip shows a wide-complex sinus tachycardia with a QRS duration of 165165 msec and a prominent terminal R wave in lead aVR.

Which of the following are the MOST appropriate simultaneous initial stabilization steps? (Select 2)

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Answer: Administration of intravenous sodium bicarbonate; Administration of intravenous lorazepam

Answer

The most appropriate simultaneous initial stabilization steps are the administration of intravenous sodium bicarbonate and intravenous lorazepam.
The patient presents with severe tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) toxicity, characterized by anticholinergic symptoms, seizures, profound hypotension, and cardiac sodium channel blockade (indicated by the QRS duration >100>100 msec and the prominent terminal R wave in lead aVR). Initial stabilization must simultaneously address the seizures and the impending cardiac arrest. Seizures produce lactic acid, which lowers serum pH; acidemia significantly worsens the binding of the TCA to cardiac sodium channels, creating a lethal feedback loop. Therefore, rapid termination of the seizure with a benzodiazepine (e.g., lorazepam) is a critical stabilization step. Concurrently, intravenous sodium bicarbonate must be administered to overcome the sodium channel blockade. Bicarbonate achieves this via two mechanisms: providing a massive sodium concentration gradient to outcompete the drug at the receptor, and alkalinizing the serum to decrease the drug's binding affinity. Both of these pharmacological interventions are life-saving and represent the cornerstone of initial triage and stabilization for this presentation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the life-threatening toxidrome and pathophysiology.
The clinical picture indicates a mixed anticholinergic and tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose, complicated by active seizures and severe cardiotoxicity (hypotension, widened QRS, terminal R wave in aVR).
Recognizing the specific toxicological mechanism (fast sodium channel blockade) dictates the immediate choice of antidotes.
2
Address the active seizures immediately.
Intravenous lorazepam is indicated to terminate the generalized tonic-clonic activity.
Seizures generate lactic acid, lowering serum pH. Acidemia increases the fraction of ionized TCA, which binds more strongly to cardiac sodium channels, rapidly worsening cardiovascular collapse.
3
Stabilize the myocardium simultaneously.
Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is indicated to treat the wide-complex tachycardia.
Sodium bicarbonate provides a high sodium load to overcome the competitive channel blockade and alkalinizes the serum, which favors the un-ionized form of the TCA, decreasing its binding affinity to the sodium channels.

Key Concept

Initial stabilization of life-threatening tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose requires simultaneous administration of sodium bicarbonate (to reverse sodium channel blockade and stabilize the myocardium) and benzodiazepines (to terminate seizures and prevent exacerbating acidemia), while strictly avoiding contraindicated agents like physostigmine and standard antiarrhythmics.
Question 838Question →

A 32-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for sudden-onset shortness of breath and right-sided pleuritic chest pain that began 2 hours ago. She has a history of an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis 3 years ago, for which she completed a 6-month course of anticoagulation. Her only current medication is an oral contraceptive pill. Two years ago, she underwent a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen with intravenous contrast for suspected appendicitis and developed severe anaphylaxis requiring intubation. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 114/72 mmHg, heart rate is 118/min, and respiratory rate is 24/min. Pulse oximetry shows 92% on room air. Physical examination reveals clear breath sounds bilaterally and normal heart sounds. The lower extremities are symmetric with no edema, erythema, or tenderness. An electrocardiogram demonstrates sinus tachycardia. A chest radiograph is unremarkable.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next imaging study to order for this patient?

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Answer: Ventilation-perfusion scan

Answer

The most appropriate imaging study is a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan.
This patient has a high clinical probability of pulmonary embolism (PE), necessitating definitive diagnostic imaging. The standard first-line test is a computed tomography angiography (CTA) of the chest. However, this patient's history of intubation due to contrast-induced anaphylaxis is an absolute contraindication to CTA. In such scenarios, particularly when the baseline chest radiograph is normal, a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is the most appropriate alternative imaging study.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the clinical probability of a pulmonary embolism.
The patient has a high pretest probability for PE based on her symptoms, tachycardia, oral contraceptive use, and history of deep vein thrombosis.
Establishing the pretest probability guides whether to order screening labs (like D-dimer) or proceed directly to definitive imaging.
2
Identify any contraindications to standard diagnostic testing.
The patient has an absolute contraindication to intravenous iodinated contrast due to a history of severe anaphylaxis.
Computed tomography angiography (CTA) of the chest is the typical first-line imaging study, but it cannot be used if the patient is allergic to contrast.
3
Select the appropriate alternative imaging modality.
A ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is selected.
In a patient with a high probability of PE and a normal chest radiograph, a V/Q scan is the most accurate alternative imaging study when CTA is contraindicated.

Key Concept

In patients with suspected pulmonary embolism who have a high pretest probability and an absolute contraindication to iodinated contrast, a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is the diagnostic imaging modality of choice, provided the chest radiograph is normal.
Question 839Question →

A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute onset of severe, tearing back pain. His blood pressure is 190/110 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 105/min. An electrocardiogram shows normal sinus rhythm without ischemic changes. Computed tomography (CT) angiography of the chest and abdomen reveals an intimal flap that originates just distal to the left subclavian artery and extends into the descending thoracic aorta. The ascending aorta and aortic arch are completely unremarkable. There is no imaging evidence of bowel ischemia, and renal perfusion appears intact. Based on these specific imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

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Answer: Initiation of an intravenous beta-blocker infusion

Answer

Initiation of an intravenous beta-blocker infusion
The correct response is the initiation of an intravenous beta-blocker infusion. The CT angiography clearly demonstrates an intimal flap restricted to the descending thoracic aorta, distal to the left subclavian artery. This imaging finding definitively identifies a Stanford Type B aortic dissection. In the absence of complications such as end-organ malperfusion (e.g., bowel ischemia, renal failure) or impending aortic rupture, the standard initial management for Type B dissection is aggressive medical therapy. The primary goal is to reduce the shear stress on the aortic wall by lowering both the heart rate and blood pressure. Intravenous beta-blockers, such as esmolol or labetalol, are the agents of choice for this purpose and must be initiated promptly in a monitored setting.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Interpret the chest and abdomen CT angiography results.
The imaging shows an intimal flap limited to the descending aorta, distal to the left subclavian artery, with an unremarkable ascending aorta.
Accurate localization of the dissection on imaging is critical for classification and subsequent management.
2
Classify the aortic dissection based on the imaging findings.
The dissection is classified as a Stanford Type B aortic dissection.
Stanford Type A involves the ascending aorta and requires surgery, whereas Type B involves only the descending aorta and is typically managed medically.
3
Determine the appropriate initial management for an uncomplicated Type B dissection.
The standard of care is aggressive medical management to reduce heart rate and blood pressure, reducing aortic wall shear stress.
Intravenous beta-blockers are the first-line agents to achieve these acute hemodynamic goals.

Key Concept

Uncomplicated Stanford Type B aortic dissections (involving only the descending aorta on imaging) are initially managed medically with strict heart rate and blood pressure control, typically using intravenous beta-blockers.
Question 840Question →

A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath on exertion. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits, with an oxygen saturation of 96% on room air. Physical examination reveals a loud pulmonic component of the second heart sound (P2), a right-sided S3 gallop, and trace bilateral lower extremity edema. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Electrocardiography demonstrates right axis deviation and right ventricular hypertrophy. The physician suspects pulmonary hypertension and plans a stepwise diagnostic evaluation to confirm the diagnosis and determine the specific etiology.

Arrange the following diagnostic modalities in the correct sequential order for the comprehensive workup of this patient's suspected pulmonary hypertension, from the most appropriate initial evaluation to definitive hemodynamic confirmation.

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Answer

The correct sequence for the diagnostic workup of suspected pulmonary hypertension begins with transthoracic echocardiography, followed by pulmonary function testing and high-resolution chest CT, then ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) lung scintigraphy, and concludes with right heart catheterization.
The correct sequence strictly follows the consensus guidelines for evaluating pulmonary hypertension. The workup is structured to rule out the most common causes using the least invasive modalities first. Transthoracic echocardiography safely identifies left heart disease (Group 2). Next, pulmonary function tests and chest CT rule out lung disease (Group 3). V/Q scanning is then required to screen for chronic thromboembolic disease (Group 4). Only after these secondary causes are systematically evaluated should right heart catheterization be pursued to hemodynamically confirm the diagnosis (e.g., Group 1 PAH) and guide specific vasodilator therapy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the probability of pulmonary hypertension and evaluate for left-sided heart disease.
Transthoracic echocardiography is performed.
Echocardiography non-invasively estimates pulmonary artery pressures and assesses for left ventricular or valvular dysfunction (Group 2 PH), which is the most common cause of elevated pulmonary pressures.
2
Evaluate for pulmonary parenchymal disease and hypoxemia.
Pulmonary function testing and high-resolution computed tomography of the chest are performed.
Group 3 PH is caused by lung diseases (e.g., interstitial lung disease, COPD); these must be structurally and functionally evaluated before progressing to more specialized testing.
3
Screen for chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH).
Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) lung scintigraphy is ordered.
V/Q scanning is the guideline-directed modality of choice for ruling out Group 4 PH, as it is more sensitive than CT pulmonary angiography for detecting chronic, distal thromboembolic disease.
4
Hemodynamically confirm the diagnosis and determine treatment candidacy.
Right heart catheterization is performed.
This is the definitive gold standard. It accurately measures mean pulmonary arterial pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, and allows for vasoreactivity testing in suspected Group 1 pulmonary arterial hypertension.

Key Concept

Stepwise diagnostic algorithm for suspected pulmonary hypertension
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