Tüm alıştırma soruları

3881 soru

Soru 2841Soru →

A nurse in an ambulatory care clinic is designing a health promotion plan for a 50-year-old male client. The client has a body mass index (BMI) of 31 kg/m231 \text{ kg/m}^2 and a strong family history of cardiovascular disease. His medical history is significant only for osteoarthritis of the right knee resulting from a remote sports injury. Which of the following nursing interventions represent secondary prevention strategies for this client? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Obtaining a blood sample to evaluate the client's fasting hemoglobin A1c and lipid profile; Distributing a fecal immunochemical test (FIT) kit for the client to complete at home; Administering a Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) to assess for signs of clinical depression

Cevap

The correct secondary prevention strategies are obtaining a fasting hemoglobin A1c and lipid profile, distributing a FIT kit, and administering a PHQ-9 depression screening.
Secondary prevention focuses on the early detection and prompt treatment of health problems in individuals who are largely asymptomatic but at risk. Evaluating fasting hemoglobin A1c and lipid profiles, distributing a fecal immunochemical test (FIT) kit for colorectal cancer screening, and administering a PHQ-9 for depression are all diagnostic screening tools. They aim to identify underlying pathophysiological changes or psychological distress early, allowing for intervention before irreversible damage or severe symptoms develop.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Recall the definition of secondary prevention.
Secondary prevention focuses on the early detection (screening) and prompt intervention of a disease before clinical symptoms manifest.
Accurately classifying interventions requires a clear understanding of the epidemiological framework of disease prevention.
2
Evaluate each nursing intervention to determine if it acts as a screening or early detection tool.
Screening blood work (A1c, lipids), FIT kits for colorectal screening, and the PHQ-9 questionnaire are all designed to detect asymptomatic or early-stage disease.
These interventions fit the precise definition of secondary prevention.
3
Identify and exclude primary and tertiary prevention strategies.
Vaccinations and dietary counseling aim to prevent disease onset altogether (primary prevention). Physical therapy aims to manage a known, existing diagnosis of osteoarthritis (tertiary prevention).
These options represent different levels of care and do not answer the question.

Anahtar Kavram

Levels of Disease Prevention (Primary, Secondary, Tertiary)
Soru 2842Soru →

An 84-year-old client with advanced dementia, left-sided hemiplegia from a previous stroke, and a stage 3 sacral pressure injury is receiving continuous enteral feeding via a nasogastric (NG) tube. The client has become acutely restless, is repeatedly pulling at their soiled incontinence brief, and requires immediate perineal care. Which action by the nurse represents the safest integration of basic care and comfort principles?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Pause the continuous enteral feeding, assess for physiological causes of the acute restlessness, and enlist assistance to safely logroll the client to provide perineal care.

Cevap

The correct action is to pause the continuous enteral feeding, assess for physiological causes of the acute restlessness, and enlist assistance to safely logroll the client to provide perineal care.
This action synthesizes multiple essential basic care principles. Acutely restless behavior in a client with dementia typically indicates a new physiological problem (like a full bladder, skin irritation from a soiled brief, or pain) requiring assessment rather than assumption. Furthermore, to safely provide perineal care and protect the stage 3 sacral pressure injury from devastating shearing forces, the client must be logrolled with assistance while the bed is lowered. Lowering the head of the bed requires pausing the continuous enteral feeding to eliminate the risk of pulmonary aspiration.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's behavioral change.
Recognize that acute restlessness in a client with dementia often indicates a new physiological stressor (such as a full bladder, skin irritation, or pain) rather than normal disease progression.
Sudden behavioral changes require immediate nursing assessment to rule out acute medical issues before implementing interventions.
2
Prioritize airway and aspiration precautions.
Determine that the continuous enteral feeding must be paused before lowering the head of the bed.
Lowering the head of the bed while a continuous feeding is infusing places the client at a high risk for pulmonary aspiration.
3
Plan for safe mobility and skin integrity preservation.
Decide to enlist assistance to logroll the client rather than turning independently or with the head of the bed elevated.
Logrolling with the bed lowered prevents severe shearing forces on the existing stage 3 sacral pressure injury and avoids dangerous pulling on the client's hemiplegic side.

Anahtar Kavram

Synthesis of Aspiration Precautions, Safe Mobility, and Delirium Assessment
Soru 2843Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 days postoperative following a median laparotomy. The client coughs forcefully and reports a 'giving way' sensation in the abdomen. The nurse inspects the incision and observes bowel loops protruding through the open wound. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions to minimize the risk of tissue necrosis and physiological decompensation?

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first call for assistance while staying with the client, then position the client to reduce abdominal tension (low Fowler's with knees flexed), cover the exposed organs with moist sterile dressings, assess vital signs for shock, and finally notify the surgeon for emergency operative repair.
Wound evisceration is an acute surgical emergency that requires a rapid, prioritized response to reduce physiological risk. The immediate goal is to prevent further tissue damage by staying with the client and reducing abdominal tension (positioning). Once further evisceration is prevented, the priority is tissue preservation (saline dressings). Only after the wound is secured should the nurse assess systemic status (vital signs) and escalate to the surgeon with complete data.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Call for immediate assistance while remaining with the client.
Additional staff is alerted to bring sterile supplies while the client remains under continuous observation.
Leaving the client alone increases the risk of injury, exacerbates panic, and delays critical interventions.
2
Position the client in low Fowler's with the knees flexed.
Intra-abdominal pressure is significantly reduced.
Flexing the knees and slightly elevating the head relaxes the abdominal musculature, preventing further visceral protrusion.
3
Cover the protruding organs with sterile, saline-soaked dressings.
The eviscerated bowel is protected from the external environment and moisture is maintained.
Exposed viscera can rapidly dry out, leading to irreversible tissue necrosis and increasing the risk of massive peritoneal infection.
4
Assess the client's vital signs and peripheral perfusion.
The client's current hemodynamic stability is determined.
The provider will need immediate baseline data regarding potential shock (e.g., tachycardia, hypotension) when contacted.
5
Notify the surgeon and prepare the client for emergency surgery.
Surgical intervention is initiated.
Wound evisceration cannot be managed conservatively; it requires immediate return to the operating room.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Postoperative Wound Evisceration
Soru 2844Soru →

An ambulatory care nurse is guiding a sedentary adult client through the development of a personalized physical activity plan to reduce the risk of chronic disease. In what order should the nurse complete the following actions? Arrange the steps from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence strictly follows the nursing process applied to health promotion: physiological safety screening (assessment), psychosocial evaluation (assessment), collaborative goal-setting (planning), specific educational intervention (implementation), and finally, establishing a timeline for review (evaluation).
The correct sequence demonstrates the application of the nursing process (ADPIE) to health promotion. The nurse must first gather comprehensive assessment data, prioritizing physiological safety over psychosocial preferences. Only after a thorough assessment can the nurse and client collaboratively plan specific goals. Implementation (teaching monitoring techniques) directly supports the established goals. Finally, evaluation is planned to measure the intervention's success over time.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess for physiological contraindications to exercise.
The client is cleared for physical activity safely.
Safety is paramount; assessing for physical risks must precede any discussion of increasing exertion.
2
Assess psychosocial factors and lifestyle barriers.
The nurse identifies the client's preferences and constraints.
Health promotion plans must be tailored to the individual's specific context to ensure adherence.
3
Collaboratively plan SMART goals.
A specific, measurable activity goal is established.
Shared decision-making in the planning phase increases client motivation and ownership of the behavior change.
4
Implement specific safety and technique education.
The client learns how to monitor exertion safely.
Education is most effective when it directly supports the specific goals that were just established.
5
Plan for evaluation and follow-up.
A timeline is set to review the client's progress.
Continuous evaluation is necessary to determine if the health promotion intervention was effective or needs adjustment.

Anahtar Kavram

Nursing Process in Health Promotion and Lifestyle Modification
Soru 2845Soru →

A client who recently underwent a mechanical aortic valve replacement is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of unfractionated heparin via a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The client is diagnosed with a healthcare-associated systemic infection, and the healthcare provider prescribes an intermittent intravenous infusion of vancomycin 1,000 mg1,000\text{ mg} to run over 9090 minutes. The nurse notes from the pharmacological reference that heparin and vancomycin are physically incompatible at the Y-site. What is the priority nursing action to safely administer the prescribed vancomycin?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Establish an additional peripheral intravenous access site to administer the vancomycin infusion independently.

Cevap

The nurse must establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the vancomycin, ensuring the continuous heparin infusion remains completely uninterrupted.
For a client with a mechanical heart valve, continuous heparin therapy is an absolute priority to prevent fatal valve thrombosis. Pausing this critical infusion for the 9090 minutes required to safely administer vancomycin would dangerously lower the client's anticoagulation levels. Because the two medications are physically incompatible and cannot share a single intravenous line, the only safe and effective solution is to establish a second independent intravenous access site. This ensures both the antibiotic and the anticoagulant are delivered continuously and without risk of precipitation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the pharmacological incompatibility between the continuous unfractionated heparin and the prescribed vancomycin.
Determines that the two medications cannot physically mix in the same intravenous tubing or Y-site without causing dangerous crystallization.
Mixing physically incompatible medications poses a high risk of catheter occlusion and life-threatening systemic emboli.
2
Evaluate the clinical indication and critical nature of the primary continuous heparin infusion.
Recognizes that the client possesses a mechanical aortic valve, which mandates strict, uninterrupted anticoagulation therapy.
A 90-minute pause in heparin administration would drastically drop the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) below the therapeutic range, exposing the client to acute mechanical valve thrombosis.
3
Determine the safest administration route that accommodates both the physical incompatibility and the physiological requirements of the client.
Decides to initiate a separate peripheral intravenous catheter exclusively for the vancomycin infusion.
This strategy allows both essential therapies to proceed safely, avoiding physical admixture in the tubing and preventing any dangerous interruption in the client's anticoagulation.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of intravenous incompatibilities concurrent with critical continuous infusions
Soru 2846Soru →

A client who has been experiencing constipation for several days is prescribed a large-volume cleansing enema. To best facilitate the flow of the enema solution by gravity into the descending colon, which position should the nurse assist the client into?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Left side-lying with the right knee flexed

Cevap

Left side-lying with the right knee flexed
Positioning the client on their left side with the right knee flexed (Sims' position) follows the natural anatomical curve of the large intestine. Because the descending colon is on the left side of the body, this position allows the enema solution to flow freely downward by gravity into the sigmoid and descending colon, improving fluid retention and promoting a more effective bowel movement.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the anatomical structure of the lower gastrointestinal tract.
The descending colon is located on the left side of the client's abdomen, leading down into the sigmoid colon and rectum.
Anatomical knowledge dictates how gravity will affect the flow of instilled fluids.
2
Evaluate how gravity interacts with the client's position during the procedure.
Lying on the left side places the descending colon in a dependent (lower) position relative to the rectum.
Gravity will assist the enema solution in flowing deeper into the colon, maximizing fluid retention and the effectiveness of the bowel cleanse.

Anahtar Kavram

Client Positioning for Enema Administration
Soru 2847Soru →

An occupational health nurse at a manufacturing facility is compiling a report on the outcomes of a recently implemented workplace wellness program. The nurse is categorizing the initiatives based on the levels of disease prevention. Which of the following activities should the nurse classify as secondary prevention?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Performing routine audiometric testing on employees who operate heavy machinery.

Cevap

Performing routine audiometric testing on employees who operate heavy machinery.
Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and screening for diseases or conditions before they become clinically symptomatic or severe. Performing routine audiometric testing is a secondary screening measure designed to detect early signs of noise-induced hearing loss, allowing for prompt intervention to prevent further irreversible deterioration.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the question requirements.
The goal is to identify the intervention that specifically qualifies as secondary disease prevention.
Accurately answering requires differentiating between primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention levels in a clinical occupational setting.
2
Define the levels of disease prevention.
Primary prevention prevents disease before it occurs; secondary prevention emphasizes early detection and screening; tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and minimizing complications of existing disease.
Establishing the definitions creates the framework to evaluate each distractor.
3
Apply the definitions to the given options.
Workstation reconfiguration and providing protective equipment prevent harm before it starts (primary). Return-to-work coordination rehabilitates an existing condition (tertiary). Audiometric testing screens for early signs of impairment (secondary).
Systematic evaluation ensures the correct classification of each nursing action.

Anahtar Kavram

Levels of Disease Prevention
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 2848Soru →

The healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside at a rate of 3 mcg/kg/min3 \text{ mcg/kg/min} for a client experiencing a hypertensive crisis. The client weighs 198 lbs198 \text{ lbs}. The medication is supplied as 50 mg50 \text{ mg} of sodium nitroprusside mixed in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5% dextrose in water (D5W). What is the appropriate infusion rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? (Record your answer as a whole number.)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 81

Cevap

81
To safely program an electronic infusion pump for a continuous weight-based medication, a multi-step dimensional analysis is required. First, determine the client's weight in kilograms (198 lbs÷2.2=90 kg198 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 90 \text{ kg}). Next, find the dose per minute (3 mcg×90 kg=270 mcg/min3 \text{ mcg} \times 90 \text{ kg} = 270 \text{ mcg/min}). Because infusion pumps run on hourly rates, multiply by 6060 to find the hourly dose (270 mcg/min×60 min/hr=16,200 mcg/hr270 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 16,200 \text{ mcg/hr}). Then, find the concentration of the IV bag by converting milligrams to micrograms (50 mg=50,000 mcg50 \text{ mg} = 50,000 \text{ mcg}) and dividing by the total volume (50,000 mcg÷250 mL=200 mcg/mL50,000 \text{ mcg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}). Finally, divide the hourly dose by the concentration (16,200 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL16,200 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 200 \text{ mcg/mL}) to arrive at 81 mL/hr81 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
90 kg90 \text{ kg}
Intravenous medication protocols requiring weight-based dosing use the metric system.
2
Calculate the total dose per minute based on the client's weight.
270 mcg/min270 \text{ mcg/min}
This establishes the exact amount of medication the client needs every minute to achieve the prescribed 3 mcg/kg/min3 \text{ mcg/kg/min}.
3
Convert the minute dose to an hourly dose.
16,200 mcg/hr16,200 \text{ mcg/hr}
Electronic infusion pumps are programmed in milliliters per hour, requiring the medication dose to be converted into an hourly timeframe.
4
Determine the concentration of the supplied medication in mcg/mL.
200 mcg/mL200 \text{ mcg/mL}
Since the dose is in micrograms and the supply is in milligrams, converting 50 mg50 \text{ mg} to 50,000 mcg50,000 \text{ mcg} and dividing by the 250 mL250 \text{ mL} bag volume provides a compatible concentration metric.
5
Calculate the final infusion pump rate.
81 mL/hr81 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the hourly dose by the concentration determines the precise fluid volume needed each hour to deliver the medication.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-Based Intravenous Continuous Infusion Calculation
Soru 2849Soru →

A community health RN is establishing a home management plan for an 80-year-old client with late-stage Parkinson's disease. The client's spouse reports that the client has become increasingly fatigued, struggles to manipulate eating utensils, and recently developed sudden episodes of urinary incontinence. Which action by the nurse best addresses the client's health and self-care needs?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Introduce adaptive dining devices to maintain feeding autonomy and obtain an order for a urinalysis.

Cevap

The nurse should introduce adaptive dining devices to maintain feeding autonomy and obtain an order for a urinalysis.
The correct answer addresses two critical clinical priorities. First, introducing adaptive dining devices directly promotes the client's self-care and autonomy by compensating for the tremors and rigidity associated with Parkinson's disease. Second, the nurse correctly recognizes that sudden urinary incontinence in an older adult is an indicator of acute pathology (such as a urinary tract infection) rather than a normal part of aging, thus appropriately requiring a medical investigation via a urinalysis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's reported symptoms and identified self-care deficits.
The client exhibits feeding difficulties secondary to Parkinson's disease progression and has a new, sudden onset of urinary incontinence.
Accurate identification of functional deficits and acute physiological changes is necessary to formulate an effective and safe home care plan.
2
Select interventions that maximize the client's independence in daily activities.
Adaptive dining devices, such as weighted or built-up utensils, are identified to compensate for fine motor deficits and tremors.
Promoting autonomy in basic activities of daily living (ADLs) is a core component of self-care maintenance for clients with progressive neurological disorders.
3
Evaluate the clinical significance of the new-onset incontinence.
Sudden urinary incontinence is recognized as a red flag for acute pathology (e.g., urinary tract infection) rather than a normal age-related change.
Distinguishing normal aging from acute disease processes ensures that the client receives timely medical intervention and prevents severe complications.

Anahtar Kavram

Promoting Self-Care and Differentiating Acute Pathology from Normal Aging
Soru 2850Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled intravenous (IV) antibiotic via a secondary line. The client currently has a continuous primary IV infusion of 0.45% sodium chloride with 20 mEq of potassium chloride running. Which action must the nurse prioritize before attaching the secondary tubing to the primary IV line?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Verify the chemical compatibility of the antibiotic with the primary infusion solution.

Cevap

Verify the chemical compatibility of the antibiotic with the primary infusion solution.
The most critical safety action before administering a secondary IV medication into a continuous primary line is verifying physical and chemical compatibility. If the solutions are incompatible, they can form a precipitate in the tubing, which can cause severe harm to the client, including embolism.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the proposed clinical intervention.
The nurse is adding a secondary IV medication to an actively running primary continuous infusion.
To determine the potential risks involved with the procedure.
2
Recognize the primary physiological safety risk associated with the intervention.
Mixing two incompatible IV solutions can cause precipitation (crystal formation) in the IV tubing.
Precipitates can lead to catheter occlusion or life-threatening emboli if they enter the client's bloodstream.
3
Select the correct preventative nursing action.
The nurse must consult an approved drug reference guide to verify Y-site compatibility before making the connection.
This guarantees that the medication can safely mix with the primary fluid without an adverse chemical reaction.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Medication Compatibility
Soru 2851Soru →

While working at a community homeless shelter, a nurse evaluates a resident who abruptly stopped drinking heavy amounts of liquor two days ago. The resident is currently experiencing profuse sweating, coarse hand tremors, and agitated visual hallucinations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Arrange for immediate emergency medical transport to a hospital.; Remain continuously with the resident in a quiet, safe area.

Cevap

The nurse should arrange for immediate emergency medical transport to a hospital and remain continuously with the resident in a quiet, safe area.
Severe alcohol withdrawal, known as delirium tremens, typically peaks 48 to 72 hours after the last drink and presents with autonomic hyperactivity, severe tremors, and hallucinations. Because this is a medical emergency capable of causing fatal arrhythmias or seizures, the nurse's priority in a community setting is to activate emergency services for transport to an acute care facility while maintaining continuous supervision to ensure client safety.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the severity of the client's clinical presentation and timeline.
The client has a history of heavy drinking, stopped 48 hours ago, and now has hallucinations, diaphoresis, and tremors.
These findings are classic indicators of delirium tremens, a severe and potentially fatal complication of alcohol withdrawal.
2
Determine the safest immediate intervention based on the environment.
Since the client is at a community shelter, they require a higher level of care. Emergency transport must be initiated.
The shelter lacks the necessary resources (e.g., intravenous medications, cardiac monitoring) to manage a life-threatening withdrawal.
3
Establish immediate safety measures while awaiting transport.
The nurse stays with the client to provide continuous observation in a low-stimulus setting.
Continuous presence prevents self-injury during hallucinations and agitation while waiting for the ambulance.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Severe Alcohol Withdrawal in Community Settings
Soru 2852Soru →

A client in cardiogenic shock is prescribed a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of dobutamine at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 80 kg80 \text{ kg}. The pharmacy provides a premixed IV bag containing 500 mg500 \text{ mg} of dobutamine in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W). At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the nurse program the electronic infusion pump?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 12

Cevap

The electronic infusion pump should be programmed to 12 mL/hr12 \text{ mL/hr}.
To determine the correct pump rate, the nurse must first calculate the client's specific dose per minute (5 mcg×80 kg=400 mcg/min5 \text{ mcg} \times 80 \text{ kg} = 400 \text{ mcg/min}), convert this to an hourly dose (400 mcg/min×60 minutes=24,000 mcg/hr400 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ minutes} = 24,000 \text{ mcg/hr}), and then convert micrograms to milligrams (24 mg/hr24 \text{ mg/hr}). Next, the concentration of the IV bag is determined (500 mg÷250 mL=2 mg/mL500 \text{ mg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 2 \text{ mg/mL}). Finally, dividing the hourly dose by the concentration yields the correct pump rate (24 mg/hr÷2 mg/mL=12 mL/hr24 \text{ mg/hr} \div 2 \text{ mg/mL} = 12 \text{ mL/hr}).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the total required dose per minute based on the client's weight.
5 mcg/kg/min×80 kg=400 mcg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 80 \text{ kg} = 400 \text{ mcg/min}
Critical care vasoactive drips are often weight-based and must be individualized to the client's mass.
2
Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
400 mcg/min×60 min/hr=24,000 mcg/hr400 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 24,000 \text{ mcg/hr}
Electronic infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, so the time unit must match the pump's hourly setting.
3
Convert the required dose from micrograms (mcg) to milligrams (mg).
24,000 mcg/hr÷1,000 mcg/mg=24 mg/hr24,000 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 1,000 \text{ mcg/mg} = 24 \text{ mg/hr}
The supplied medication is measured in milligrams (500 mg500 \text{ mg}). Units must align before calculating the final fluid volume.
4
Calculate the concentration of the supplied IV bag.
500 mg÷250 mL=2 mg/mL500 \text{ mg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 2 \text{ mg/mL}
This determines the exact amount of active drug contained in each milliliter of the IV fluid.
5
Determine the final infusion pump rate.
24 mg/hr÷2 mg/mL=12 mL/hr24 \text{ mg/hr} \div 2 \text{ mg/mL} = 12 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration provides the exact volume of fluid the pump must deliver each hour.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based intravenous continuous infusion calculations and unit conversions.
Soru 2853Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a new intravenous (IV) push medication to a client who is already receiving a continuous IV fluid infusion. To ensure client safety and reduce the risk of an adverse event, which action must the nurse take before administering the medication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Check a medication reference to confirm that the IV push medication is compatible with the continuous IV fluid.

Cevap

The nurse must verify the compatibility of the IV push medication with the continuous IV fluid using a reliable reference.
When two or more intravenous medications or fluids are administered through the same IV line, the nurse must ensure they are chemically and physically compatible. Incompatibility can result in precipitation, cloudiness, or a change in color, which can lead to life-threatening complications such as an embolism or loss of medication efficacy.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the proposed clinical intervention.
The nurse is planning to administer an IV push medication through a line that is currently infusing a continuous IV fluid.
Understanding the route and the presence of concurrent therapies highlights potential interaction risks.
2
Recognize the physiological risks associated with mixing multiple IV solutions.
Mixing incompatible intravenous medications or fluids can cause crystallization, precipitation, or inactivation of the drugs.
Identifying the specific physiological risk guides the choice of the appropriate safety intervention.
3
Select the priority nursing action that mitigates this risk.
The nurse must consult a drug reference guide or pharmacist to verify compatibility before administration.
This is a fundamental safety check required to prevent harm to the client and maintain IV line patency.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Intravenous Medication Safety
Soru 2854Soru →

A client with acute decompensated heart failure is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of milrinone through a dedicated 20-gauge peripheral catheter. The healthcare provider prescribes a STAT dose of furosemide 40 mg IV push. The client currently has no other venous access. Which action by the nurse is the safest and most appropriate?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Establish a new peripheral IV catheter to administer the furosemide independently.

Cevap

Establish a new peripheral IV catheter to administer the furosemide independently.
Milrinone and furosemide are physically incompatible and will precipitate if mixed in the same IV line. Additionally, milrinone is a critical continuous inotropic infusion; the IV line cannot be paused and flushed. Flushing the line would push the milrinone residing in the tubing into the client as an uncontrolled, potentially fatal bolus, while simultaneously causing a dangerous drop in cardiac output during the pause. The only safe action is to establish a new, separate peripheral IV line for the furosemide.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the properties of the continuous infusion.
Milrinone is a continuous inotropic/vasoactive medication used for severe heart failure that requires a dedicated line to maintain hemodynamic stability.
Understanding the high-alert nature of the primary infusion is critical before altering the line.
2
Evaluate the chemical compatibility of the prescribed medications.
Furosemide is highly incompatible with milrinone and will immediately precipitate if mixed in the same IV line.
Verifying IV compatibility prevents crystal formation and potential emboli.
3
Consider administration alternatives for the single IV line.
Pausing the milrinone disrupts critical cardiac support, and flushing the line delivers an uncontrolled, rapid bolus of the milrinone remaining in the tubing directly into the client's circulation.
Vasoactive continuous drips should never be flushed to clear a line for other medications.
4
Determine the safest clinical action.
Starting a new, independent peripheral IV line is required to safely administer the STAT dose of furosemide.
This is the only way to avoid precipitation and prevent a dangerous bolus of the inotropic agent.

Anahtar Kavram

IV Medication Compatibility and Vasoactive Infusion Safety
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 2855Soru →

A nurse is directing the care of an 80-year-old client who is 48 hours post-operative following a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach). The client, who has no history of cognitive impairment, has become increasingly restless, is pulling at their indwelling urinary catheter, and has had two episodes of bowel incontinence. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to include in the client's basic care and comfort plan?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Secure an abduction pillow between the client's lower extremities before turning them onto their left side to perform perineal care.

Cevap

Secure an abduction pillow between the client's lower extremities before turning them onto their left side to perform perineal care.
For a client recovering from a total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach, maintaining abduction of the affected extremity is critical to prevent dislocation of the new joint. When the nurse must turn the client to provide basic hygiene, such as perineal care after bowel incontinence, securing an abduction pillow between the legs ensures the operative hip does not fall into adduction or internal rotation when the client is rolled onto their unaffected side.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's surgical history and current basic care needs.
The client is 48 hours post-operative for a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach) and requires perineal care and linen changes due to bowel incontinence.
Identifying the surgical approach determines the necessary movement precautions to prevent hip dislocation during care.
2
Identify the positional constraints for a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty.
The client must avoid hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction across the midline, and internal rotation.
These movements put excessive stress on the posterior joint capsule and can lead to immediate dislocation of the femoral head.
3
Evaluate the proposed nursing actions against safe practice standards for basic care.
Turning the client onto their unaffected (left) side while using an abduction pillow to keep the right leg from adducting is the correct and safe method to access the perineal area.
The abduction pillow maintains alignment and prevents the operative right leg from crossing the midline under the pull of gravity during the turn.
4
Critique the alternative interventions for safety and scope of practice violations.
Delegating assessment to a UAP, using restraints without trying alternatives, and ignoring new-onset confusion all violate standard nursing protocols.
Eliminating unsafe or inappropriate actions confirms the correct positioning intervention is the priority.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic care and positioning for clients following total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach), integrating safe delegation and complication recognition.
Soru 2856Soru →

A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who is completely bedridden following an ischemic stroke. The plan includes interventions to maintain skin integrity, promote comfort, and ensure proper body alignment. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate to include in the client's care plan? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Float the client's heels off the mattress by placing a supportive pillow under the lower legs.; Utilize a draw sheet to lift rather than drag the client when moving them up in bed.; Place a trochanter roll alongside the client's outer thigh and hip to prevent external hip rotation.

Cevap

The appropriate actions are floating the heels off the mattress, utilizing a draw sheet to lift the client, and placing a trochanter roll alongside the outer thigh and hip.
Floating the heels prevents pressure injuries on highly vulnerable bony prominences. Using a draw sheet prevents shearing and friction forces that damage the epidermis during repositioning. Placing a trochanter roll prevents abnormal external rotation of the hip joint, maintaining functional body alignment for the immobile client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's primary risks related to being completely bedridden.
The client is at high risk for pressure injuries (due to immobility, friction, and shear) and musculoskeletal complications like contractures or abnormal joint rotation.
Understanding the physiological impacts of immobility directs the selection of appropriate basic care interventions.
2
Evaluate the interventions aimed at protecting skin integrity.
Floating heels and using a draw sheet correctly mitigate pressure, friction, and shear. Maintaining a high head-of-bed angle incorrectly increases sacral shear.
Direct pressure and shearing forces are the primary causes of pressure injuries in bedridden clients.
3
Evaluate the intervention for body alignment.
Using a trochanter roll is an effective mechanical support to prevent external hip rotation.
Immobile clients lose muscle tone that normally keeps joints aligned, requiring mechanical aids.
4
Evaluate the delegation intervention.
Delegating skin assessment is identified as an unsafe action.
Assessments fall strictly within the Registered Nurse's scope of practice.

Anahtar Kavram

Immobility Management and Pressure Injury Prevention
Soru 2857Soru →

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with an opioid use disorder who will be initiating home induction of buprenorphine/naloxone therapy. To prevent precipitated withdrawal and ensure maximum medication absorption, the nurse should instruct the client to perform the administration steps in which order? Arrange the items from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence begins with opioid abstinence, followed by verifying withdrawal symptoms, placing the medication sublingually, letting it dissolve completely, and finally waiting before oral intake.
Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist with a high receptor affinity. Proper home induction requires the client to first abstain from opioids and wait for the onset of mild-to-moderate withdrawal to prevent precipitated withdrawal. Once safe to administer, the medication must be placed sublingually, allowed to dissolve completely without chewing, and left undisturbed by food or drink to ensure mucosal absorption and bypass first-pass hepatic metabolism.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Instruct the client to abstain from short-acting opioids for 12 to 24 hours.
Full opioid agonists begin to detach and clear from the mu-opioid receptors in the brain.
Because buprenorphine is a partial agonist with high affinity, introducing it too early will forcibly displace remaining full agonists, causing acute precipitated withdrawal.
2
Assess for the onset of mild-to-moderate withdrawal symptoms.
The client experiences objective signs like sweating, yawning, or restlessness.
This physical confirmation ensures the receptors are adequately cleared, making it safe to introduce the partial agonist.
3
Place the medication sublingually.
The film or tablet rests directly against the mucosal membrane under the tongue.
Sublingual administration allows the drug to enter the systemic circulation directly, bypassing the first-pass effect of the liver.
4
Allow the medication to dissolve undisturbed.
The medication is maximally absorbed through the oral mucosa.
Chewing or swallowing diverts the medication into the stomach and GI tract, where absorption is extremely poor.
5
Maintain nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status for at least 15 minutes.
The oral cavity environment remains stable while residual medication absorbs.
Food and fluids can change the pH of the mouth and wash away the unabsorbed drug, reducing its therapeutic effectiveness.

Anahtar Kavram

Home induction of buprenorphine requires precise timing based on withdrawal onset to prevent precipitated withdrawal, followed by strict sublingual administration protocols to ensure absorption.
Soru 2858Soru →

A mental health nurse is guiding a client through cognitive restructuring to manage chronic stress related to a major life transition. Arrange the nursing actions in the appropriate sequential order for this intervention. (Place the first action at the top and the final action at the bottom.)

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence for cognitive restructuring is to first identify the stress-provoking event, then uncover the automatic negative thoughts, evaluate the validity of those thoughts, formulate alternative perspectives, and finally practice the new approach.
Cognitive restructuring follows a logical, step-by-step process. The nurse must first establish the specific context by identifying the triggering event. Next, the client's automatic thoughts regarding that event are uncovered. Once the thoughts are explicit, they can be evaluated for validity and accuracy. After challenging the distorted thoughts, the nurse helps the client construct alternative, balanced interpretations. Finally, to ensure the intervention is effective, the client rehearses using these new perspectives in a safe setting.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elicit a description of a specific event that recently triggered a severe stress response.
The nurse and client identify the context of the stressor.
Cognitive restructuring requires a concrete example of a stressful situation to analyze.
2
Guide the client to articulate the immediate, automatic thoughts that arose during the event.
The client recognizes their cognitive distortions.
Before thoughts can be changed, the specific automatic negative thoughts must be brought into awareness.
3
Collaborate with the client to evaluate the objective validity of those initial thoughts.
The client begins to see that their initial thoughts may not be accurate.
Challenging cognitive distortions by examining evidence breaks the cycle of negative thinking.
4
Develop alternative, balanced interpretations to replace the distorted thinking patterns.
The client creates healthier cognitive responses.
Replacing irrational thoughts with realistic ones is the core goal of cognitive restructuring.
5
Rehearse the application of the newly formed perspectives using a simulated scenario.
The client gains confidence in using the new skill.
Practice is essential for the client to successfully utilize the new coping strategy in real-life situations.

Anahtar Kavram

The nursing process in cognitive restructuring involves a sequential progression from identifying triggers and negative thoughts to challenging those thoughts and practicing new, healthier cognitive responses.
Soru 2859Soru →

A home hospice nurse arrives for a scheduled visit to a client with end-stage amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The client's spouse, who is the primary caregiver, is crying and states, "I just cannot do this anymore." The client's sibling, who recently arrived from out of town, is standing in the room arguing loudly, "You are completely neglecting my brother!" The client is awake in bed and visibly distressed by the interaction. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Request that the spouse and sibling step into another room, then acknowledge the emotional stress both are experiencing.

Cevap

The priority action is to ask the family members to step into another room and then acknowledge their emotional stress.
The correct action prioritizes the client's immediate emotional and physical safety by removing the loud conflict from the client's presence. Validating the feelings of both family members without taking sides establishes a therapeutic environment, addresses caregiver strain, and initiates neutral conflict resolution.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the immediate environment and identify the primary threat to the client.
The loud argument is identified as an acute psychological stressor causing visible distress to the client.
Protecting the client from environmental and psychological harm is the nurse's first priority.
2
Intervene to separate the conflict from the client.
The spouse and sibling are directed to move their conversation to a different room.
This immediately resolves the environmental hazard for the client.
3
Utilize therapeutic communication to de-escalate the family members.
The nurse neutrally acknowledges the severe emotional strain both individuals are experiencing without taking sides.
Validation of feelings reduces defensiveness and opens the door for a collaborative discussion about caregiver strain and the client's care needs.

Anahtar Kavram

Family Dynamics and Conflict De-escalation
Soru 2860Soru →

A registered nurse is evaluating a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery of a macrosomic infant. The client's uterine fundus is firm, midline, and one centimeter below the umbilicus, with scant rubra lochia on the perineal pad. The client reports severe, unremitting pelvic and vaginal pain that is unrelieved by ibuprofen. The client's current heart rate is 114 beats/min and blood pressure is 102/64 mm Hg. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Inspect the perineal and vulvar areas for localized swelling, tenseness, or bluish discoloration; Notify the healthcare provider immediately regarding the client's severe pain and elevated heart rate; Ensure the client has patent large-bore intravenous access and prepare for potential isotonic fluid resuscitation

Cevap

The correct actions include inspecting the perineum for signs of a hematoma, notifying the healthcare provider immediately, and ensuring large-bore IV access for potential fluid resuscitation.
The client's presentation of severe, unremitting perineal pain despite analgesia, combined with a firm fundus, scant lochia, and tachycardia, strongly suggests a vaginal or vulvar hematoma (a form of concealed postpartum hemorrhage). The nurse must immediately inspect the perineum to assess the extent of the hematoma, notify the healthcare provider because surgical intervention may be required, and secure large-bore IV access to prepare for fluid resuscitation to manage early hypovolemic shock.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and vital signs.
The client has severe, unremitting pain out of proportion to the visible trauma, a firm fundus, scant external bleeding, and unexpected tachycardia (HR 114 beats/min).
These assessment findings are hallmark indicators of a concealed postpartum hemorrhage, most likely a vaginal or vulvar hematoma resulting from the operative delivery.
2
Determine the immediate nursing assessment priorities.
The nurse must directly inspect the perineal and vulvar areas for physical signs of a hematoma, such as localized swelling, tenseness, or bluish discoloration.
Direct visual assessment confirms the clinical suspicion of a hematoma before interventions are finalized.
3
Formulate a plan for collaborative care and emergency intervention.
The nurse must notify the provider immediately and establish or confirm large-bore IV access.
A hematoma may require surgical evacuation. The client's tachycardia indicates early hypovolemia, necessitating readiness for rapid isotonic fluid or blood product administration.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and Management of Postpartum Hematoma
ÖncekiSayfa 143 / 195Sonraki
Tüm alıştırma soruları — NCLEX-RN | Examkin