Tüm alıştırma soruları

3881 soru

Soru 1601Soru →

A client whose expected hospital discharge was just canceled due to a low hemoglobin level turns away from the nurse and begins to cry silently. Arrange the following nursing actions in the most appropriate therapeutic sequence, from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first provide nonverbal support by sitting quietly, then validate the client's disappointment verbally, follow up with an open-ended question to explore their feelings, and finally ask a focused question to address specific concerns.
The most therapeutic approach when a client is actively crying is to start with nonverbal support, such as offering silence and a tissue, which provides a safe space. Next, validating their feelings demonstrates empathy. Once the client feels heard, the nurse can use broad, open-ended questions to encourage further expression. Finally, after the initial emotional release, the nurse can help the client focus on specific concerns.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the immediate emotional need.
The client is actively crying and needs safe, nonverbal support.
Silence and physical presence demonstrate acceptance without placing pressure on the client.
2
Acknowledge the emotion verbally.
The nurse validates the client's disappointment.
Validating feelings builds trust and shows empathy.
3
Encourage expression of feelings.
The client is invited to share their emotions.
Open-ended questions facilitate further therapeutic communication.
4
Identify specific concerns.
The nurse helps focus on actionable or primary worries.
Clarifying specific problems should occur only after emotions are validated.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Communication Sequence
Soru 1602Soru →

An interdisciplinary care team is planning the transition to home for a 78-year-old client who recently underwent a total hip arthroplasty. The client lives in a multi-level home with a spouse who has moderate Alzheimer's disease. Their extended family lives internationally. Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend to ensure a safe support system? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Consult a medical social worker to explore temporary respite care or in-home assistance for the spouse; Facilitate a referral for home-based physical and occupational therapy services; Provide the couple with contacts for local meal delivery programs and pharmacy delivery services

Cevap

The correct interventions are consulting a medical social worker, facilitating home-based therapies, and arranging for meal and pharmacy deliveries.
The correct interventions holistically address the complex needs of a household where the primary functional adult (the client) is temporarily incapacitated. Consulting a medical social worker ensures the spouse with Alzheimer's receives necessary care, preventing neglect. Home-based therapies provide mandatory physical rehabilitation and home safety evaluations without requiring complex transportation logistics. Organizing meal and pharmacy deliveries directly compensates for the couple's current inability to safely manage daily household operations.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's living situation and identify potential safety risks.
The client has limited mobility post-surgery and lives with a spouse who has cognitive impairment (Alzheimer's disease), with no local family support available.
Understanding the home dynamics is necessary to determine which support systems must be activated prior to discharge.
2
Evaluate each proposed intervention for safety, legal scope of practice, and therapeutic communication principles.
Connecting the couple with community resources (meals, therapy, social work) safely addresses their deficits. Delegating assessments to an aide, relying on a cognitively impaired spouse for medication management, and giving false reassurance are unsafe or non-therapeutic actions.
Nursing interventions must remain within legal boundaries and directly address the specific psychosocial and physical challenges of the client's environment.

Anahtar Kavram

Developing a comprehensive discharge support plan that incorporates community resources, safe delegation, and therapeutic communication while compensating for caregiver cognitive deficits.
Soru 1603Soru →

A nurse in a pediatric clinic is assessing a 3-year-old child who has multiple small, circular burn marks on their back. The parent states, "The child accidentally backed into a hot radiator." The nurse recognizes that the physical injuries are highly inconsistent with the parent's explanation and suspects child physical abuse. Which of the following is the nurse's priority action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Report the suspected abuse immediately to the designated child protective agency.

Cevap

Report the suspected abuse immediately to the designated child protective agency.
Nurses are mandated reporters and are legally obligated to report suspected child, elder, or vulnerable adult abuse to the appropriate state authorities immediately. Conclusive proof is not necessary; a reasonable clinical suspicion—such as injuries inconsistent with the provided history—is sufficient to trigger this mandatory reporting requirement. The priority is always the immediate safety of the client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the client's presentation.
The nurse identifies physical injuries (circular burns) that do not match the parent's explanation (backing into a radiator).
Recognizing inconsistencies between a history and physical findings is a primary indicator of potential abuse.
2
Determine the legal and ethical obligations of the nurse.
The nurse recognizes the role as a mandated reporter.
Healthcare professionals are legally required to advocate for vulnerable populations and report suspected abuse.
3
Select the safest, most immediate intervention.
The nurse must notify the appropriate agency based on suspicion alone.
Waiting for definitive proof or attempting to investigate internally places the child in immediate danger.

Anahtar Kavram

Mandatory Reporting of Suspected Abuse
Soru 1604Soru →

An 82-year-old resident in an assisted living facility has exhibited increased restlessness, intermittent grimacing, and meal refusal over the past 24 hours. The resident has a documented history of chronic constipation. When evaluating this resident's abdominal region, which approach by the nurse is most appropriate?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Observing the contour of the abdomen first, then using the diaphragm of the stethoscope to auscultate all four quadrants prior to initiating percussion and palpation.

Cevap

The nurse must first inspect the abdomen and then auscultate all four quadrants before proceeding to percussion and palpation.
The correct assessment sequence for the abdomen is inspection, followed by auscultation, percussion, and finally palpation. Auscultating prior to percussion and palpation is a critical deviation from the standard physical assessment sequence. It is necessary because manual manipulation of the abdomen can artificially stimulate bowel motility, leading to inaccurate assessment of bowel sounds.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has sudden-onset restlessness, grimacing, and anorexia with a history of constipation, indicating a high probability of an acute abdominal issue.
Identifying the primary clinical problem determines the priority assessment focus.
2
Determine the appropriate physical assessment sequence for the affected body system.
The abdomen requires a specific sequence: inspection, auscultation, percussion, and finally palpation.
Using the standard assessment sequence (inspect, palpate, percuss, auscultate) on the abdomen can artificially stimulate bowel motility, altering normal sounds.
3
Evaluate the options based on nursing principles and safety.
Delegating an assessment to unlicensed personnel is unsafe. Assuming acute symptoms are normal aging is negligent. Palpating before auscultating is an incorrect technique.
Systematically eliminating incorrect nursing actions ensures the selection of the safest, evidence-based practice.

Anahtar Kavram

Abdominal Assessment Sequence and Geriatric Considerations
Soru 1605Soru →

A client whose newborn infant was just pronounced dead in the neonatal intensive care unit is sitting in a rocking chair, staring blankly at the empty isolette. The client is not crying and has not spoken for the last 20 minutes. The nurse enters the room. Which of the following is the most therapeutic nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Pull up a chair, sit quietly beside the client, and remain in the room without speaking.

Cevap

The most therapeutic action is to pull up a chair, sit quietly beside the client, and remain in the room without speaking.
In the immediate aftermath of a catastrophic loss, a client experiencing acute psychological shock is often entirely unable to process verbal communication or formulate responses. The therapeutic techniques of 'offering self' (being physically present) and 'using silence' provide a supportive, non-judgmental anchor. This conveys deep empathy, acceptance, and availability without placing any cognitive or social demands on the grieving client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current clinical and psychological state.
The client has just experienced a catastrophic loss, is exhibiting a flat affect, and is entirely non-verbal, indicating acute psychological shock.
Identifying the client's immediate stage of grief is essential to determine the appropriate therapeutic communication approach.
2
Evaluate the impact of verbal versus non-verbal communication in this specific context.
Verbal communication requires cognitive processing and social engagement. Non-verbal presence provides support without cognitive demands.
Acute shock profoundly impairs the ability to process information. Imposing verbal demands can overwhelm the client.
3
Select the nursing action that provides support without creating communication barriers.
Sitting quietly utilizes the evidence-based techniques of 'offering self' and 'active silence'.
These techniques validate the depth of the client's grief by demonstrating that the nurse is willing to share the uncomfortable reality with them unconditionally.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Communication in Acute Grief and Shock
Soru 1606Soru →

A client is resting in the postpartum unit following a vaginal delivery. The newborn was transferred to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) two hours ago due to sudden respiratory distress. The client is crying quietly and states, "This is all my fault. If I had taken better care of myself during the pregnancy, my baby would be here with me." Which of the following is the most therapeutic response by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: You are feeling responsible for the fact that your infant is currently requiring intensive care.

Cevap

The most therapeutic response validates the client's feelings by reflecting their statement back to them: 'You are feeling responsible for the fact that your infant is currently requiring intensive care.'
The correct answer utilizes reflection to validate the client's feelings. By restating the client's sense of responsibility without judgment, the nurse demonstrates empathy, acknowledges the psychological pain, and creates a safe space for the client to process their grief.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's statement and underlying emotional state.
The client is expressing deep guilt, grief, and self-blame regarding the newborn's unexpected admission to the NICU.
Identifying the core emotion is the essential first step before formulating a therapeutic response.
2
Evaluate the communication options against therapeutic communication principles.
The nurse must choose a response that encourages the expression of feelings, avoiding communication blocks like false reassurance, probing, or giving advice.
Therapeutic communication prioritizes the client's psychological and emotional experience over premature problem-solving or fact-giving.
3
Select the most appropriate therapeutic technique for the situation.
The correct choice utilizes 'reflection' and 'restating' to validate the client's emotional distress, keeping the focus on their feelings.
Reflection demonstrates empathy and active listening, which builds trust and facilitates further therapeutic dialogue.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Communication
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1607Soru →

A critical care nurse is caring for a client with septic shock who has a multi-lumen central venous catheter. The client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine and is now prescribed an intermittent intravenous infusion of vancomycin. Which of the following nursing actions ensure safe pharmacological and parenteral therapy administration? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Designate a dedicated lumen of the central venous catheter exclusively for the continuous norepinephrine infusion.; Administer the continuous norepinephrine infusion using an electronic infusion pump with dose error reduction software.; Flush an available secondary lumen with sterile normal saline before and after administering the intermittent vancomycin dose.

Cevap

The correct actions are to designate a dedicated lumen for the norepinephrine, use an electronic infusion pump for the pressor, and flush a secondary lumen with normal saline before and after the vancomycin dose.
Safe parenteral administration of high-alert medications requires strict adherence to safety protocols. Norepinephrine is a potent vasopressor used to sustain blood pressure in septic shock; it must be administered via a dedicated central line lumen using an electronic infusion pump to ensure precise, uninterrupted delivery. Vancomycin is an intermittent antibiotic that should be administered through a separate, properly flushed lumen to maintain patency and avoid incompatibilities.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's condition and the prescribed therapies.
The client has septic shock (hemodynamically unstable) and is receiving norepinephrine (a high-alert continuous vasopressor) and vancomycin (an intermittent antibiotic requiring specific rate controls).
Identifying the critical nature of the client and the specific requirements of each medication is the first step in safe parenteral administration.
2
Determine the requirements for safe norepinephrine administration.
Norepinephrine requires a dedicated central line lumen, an electronic infusion pump, and must never be paused or mixed with other medications.
Even minor fluctuations in a vasopressor infusion rate can cause severe cardiovascular instability.
3
Determine the requirements for safe vancomycin administration.
Vancomycin must be infused slowly over at least 60 minutes via an available separate lumen, with normal saline flushes before and after.
Rapid vancomycin infusion causes Red Man Syndrome, and using a separate flushed lumen prevents drug incompatibilities.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of high-alert continuous vasopressors and intermittent intravenous antibiotics.
Soru 1608Soru →

A critical care nurse is managing a client with severe sepsis. The client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine.

Client Data:
- Weight: 220220 lb
- Current mean arterial pressure (MAP): 5454 mm Hg
- Current infusion pump rate: 1818 mL/hr
- Medication concentration: Norepinephrine 88 mg in 250250 mL 5%5\% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
- Provider titration protocol: "Increase norepinephrine by 0.040.04 mcg/kg/min every 55 minutes until MAP is ≥65\geq 65 mm Hg."

The nurse determines the need to increase the infusion rate according to the protocol. What should be the newly programmed infusion pump rate in mL/hr?

*Round the final answer to the nearest tenth.*

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 25.5

Cevap

The new infusion pump rate should be set to 25.5 mL/hr.
To find the new pump rate, the nurse must first determine how much extra volume per hour is needed to satisfy the 0.040.04 mcg/kg/min increase. By converting the client's weight to 100100 kg, the required dose increase is 44 mcg/min, which equals 240240 mcg/hr. Using the bag concentration of 3232 mcg/mL, the required volume increase is 7.57.5 mL/hr. Adding this to the baseline rate of 1818 mL/hr yields the final correct rate of 25.525.5 mL/hr.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert weight to kilograms.
220220 lb / 2.22.2 = 100100 kg.
Weight-based dosing requires the client's weight in kg.
2
Calculate the dose increment per minute.
0.040.04 mcg/kg/min * 100100 kg = 44 mcg/min.
This determines how much additional medication the client needs every minute based on the protocol.
3
Convert the dose increment to an hourly rate.
44 mcg/min * 6060 min/hr = 240240 mcg/hr.
Infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr, so the dose must be expressed per hour.
4
Determine the concentration of the IV bag in mcg/mL.
88 mg = 80008000 mcg. 80008000 mcg / 250250 mL = 3232 mcg/mL.
Medication is ordered in mcg, but supplied in mg. Both units must match to find the volume.
5
Calculate the volume increment in mL/hr.
240240 mcg/hr / 3232 mcg/mL = 7.57.5 mL/hr.
This isolates the exact amount of fluid needed to deliver the required increase in medication.
6
Add the volume increment to the current infusion rate.
1818 mL/hr + 7.57.5 mL/hr = 25.525.5 mL/hr.
The protocol requires increasing the current rate, not replacing it with only the increment.

Anahtar Kavram

Advanced medication titration requires calculating the incremental dose increase based on weight and concentration, then accurately adding that newly calculated volume rate to the baseline continuous infusion rate.
Soru 1609Soru →

A nurse is teaching a client experiencing acute stress how to perform diaphragmatic breathing. Arrange the steps of this stress management technique in the correct chronological order.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence begins with positioning, followed by hand placement for biofeedback, then the inhalation phase, and finally the exhalation phase.
The correct sequence follows the logical progression of preparing the body, setting up physical biofeedback, and executing the complete respiratory cycle. Positioning establishes physical comfort, hand placement ensures the correct technique is being used, nasal inhalation fills the lower lung fields, and pursed-lip exhalation maximizes the vagal relaxation response.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the foundational requirement for relaxation exercises.
The client must first be in a comfortable position.
Physical comfort reduces baseline muscle tension, allowing the technique to be effective.
2
Determine the preparation needed for diaphragmatic breathing.
The client places a hand on the abdomen.
This provides sensory feedback to confirm the diaphragm, rather than the chest, is doing the work.
3
Sequence the active breathing phases.
Inhalation precedes exhalation.
The lungs must fill with air through nasal inhalation before a controlled, prolonged exhalation through pursed lips can occur.

Anahtar Kavram

Diaphragmatic breathing is a fundamental stress management technique that activates the parasympathetic nervous system.
Soru 1610Soru →

A critical care nurse is managing a client with a double-lumen central venous catheter. One lumen is actively infusing continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The second lumen is infusing continuous norepinephrine to maintain the client's mean arterial pressure. The provider writes a new order for an intravenous antibiotic, piperacillin-tazobactam, to be administered over 30 minutes. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the prescribed antibiotic

Cevap

Establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the prescribed antibiotic.
The most appropriate action is to establish a new peripheral intravenous site. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires a strictly dedicated line due to its high glucose content and risk of precipitation, meaning it cannot be shared or paused for other medications. Additionally, norepinephrine is a life-sustaining vasoactive drip; connecting a secondary infusion to this line alters flow dynamics and can inadvertently deliver a dangerous bolus of the vasopressor to the client. Stopping the vasopressor is also contraindicated due to the immediate risk of cardiovascular collapse. Therefore, obtaining alternative IV access is mandatory.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the current use of the central venous catheter lumens.
One lumen is dedicated to TPN, and the other is dedicated to a continuous vasopressor (norepinephrine).
Identifying the current infusions is necessary to determine if a compatible and safe port is available for a new medication.
2
Analyze the safety guidelines for TPN administration.
TPN requires a strictly dedicated intravenous line.
Accessing a TPN line for other medications increases the risk of severe central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI) and drug-nutrient precipitation.
3
Analyze the safety guidelines for continuous vasoactive infusions.
Norepinephrine cannot be paused, and secondary infusions should not be piggybacked into its line.
Altering the flow rate of the carrier fluid in a vasopressor line can cause a sudden, life-threatening bolus of the medication or a dangerous drop in blood pressure.
4
Determine the safest method for antibiotic administration.
A new peripheral IV must be started.
Since both existing central lumens are occupied by critical, dedicated infusions that cannot be safely shared or interrupted, alternative access is mandatory.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of parenteral therapies requires maintaining dedicated lines for TPN and avoiding the interruption or flow alteration of continuous life-sustaining vasopressors.
Soru 1611Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client with severe anemia. Which of the following intravenous fluids should the nurse use to prime the blood administration tubing?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 0.9% sodium chloride

Cevap

0.9% sodium chloride
Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) is the only acceptable intravenous fluid to use for priming tubing and flushing lines during a blood transfusion. It is completely isotonic with red blood cells and contains no calcium, preventing both cellular hemolysis and clot formation within the administration set.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the prescribed therapy to be administered.
The nurse is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs).
Identifying the specific biologic product is necessary to determine fluid compatibility requirements.
2
Determine the compatible intravenous fluid for blood transfusions.
0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) is identified as the only safe choice.
Using any other fluid risks hemolysis or coagulation of the donor red blood cells.

Anahtar Kavram

Blood Product Administration Compatibility
Soru 1612Soru →

The nurse is evaluating the coping mechanisms of several clients. Match each clinical scenario or behavioral observation with the correct defense mechanism it best illustrates.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

Despite harboring intense anger toward an abusive parent, an adult child insists on visiting them daily, telling the nurse, "I just love taking care of my family more than anything."
To manage a history of impulsive aggression, an individual starts attending a competitive boxing gym to channel their energy safely.
After being terminated from a long-term position, a client states, "I didn't want that job anyway; it required too much overtime and took me away from my hobbies."
Struggling with profound feelings of inadequacy, a partner constantly accuses their spouse of being uneducated and incompetent.
Upon receiving a poor prognosis from the oncologist, a patient yells at the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for bringing the wrong type of juice.

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The scenarios demonstrate the following mechanisms: visiting the abusive parent is Reaction Formation; boxing to channel aggression is Sublimation; making excuses for being fired is Rationalization; accusing the spouse of incompetence is Projection; and yelling at the UAP over a poor prognosis is Displacement.
Each clinical scenario clearly aligns with a specific defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves acting the opposite of true feelings. Sublimation turns unacceptable impulses into acceptable ones. Rationalization uses logical-sounding excuses to explain away failures. Projection blames others for one's own internal insecurities. Displacement shifts anger to a safer, less threatening target.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the scenario regarding the client with the abusive parent.
The client replaces the unacceptable feeling of anger with its direct opposite, extreme devotion.
Identifying the transformation of a threatening emotion into its opposite behavior points directly to reaction formation.
2
Analyze the scenario of the client joining a competitive boxing gym.
The client safely channels violent, impulsive tendencies into a structured, acceptable sport.
Converting an unacceptable impulse into a socially constructive activity is the definition of sublimation.
3
Analyze the scenario of the client who was terminated from their position.
The client attempts to make the negative outcome seem acceptable by providing logical excuses.
Creating false but plausible excuses to protect self-esteem without acknowledging the true reason is rationalization.
4
Analyze the scenario of the insecure client accusing their partner.
The client places their own feelings of inadequacy onto their spouse.
Attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or insecurities onto someone else is projection.
5
Analyze the scenario of the client yelling at the UAP.
The client redirects anger from the oncologist and the diagnosis onto a safer, uninvolved target.
Redirecting emotions from the original anxiety-provoking source to a less threatening substitute is displacement.

Anahtar Kavram

Defense Mechanisms
Soru 1613Soru →

A client admitted to the medical-surgical unit is pacing the hallway and speaking loudly. The client states to the nurse, "Nobody here knows what they are doing! I waited twenty minutes for someone to answer my call light!" Which of the following is the most therapeutic response by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: You appear very angry that you had to wait so long for someone to answer your call light.

Cevap

The most therapeutic response is to reflect the client's feelings and acknowledge their anger about the wait time without being defensive.
The correct response utilizes the therapeutic communication technique of reflection. By stating an objective observation about the client's anger and directly connecting it to the waiting time, the nurse validates the client's feelings. This approach encourages the client to continue expressing their emotions, demonstrates empathy, and helps de-escalate the situation without the nurse resorting to defensiveness.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's statement and behavior.
The client is pacing, speaking loudly, and expressing overt anger over a delayed response to their call light.
Identifying the client's current emotional state is the critical first step in selecting a therapeutic communication technique.
2
Evaluate the given response options against therapeutic communication principles.
The correct response must focus entirely on the client's feelings without offering excuses, asking probing 'why' questions, or giving false promises.
Therapeutic communication requires validating the client's experience and maintaining a non-judgmental environment.
3
Select the response that utilizes reflection.
Stating 'You appear very angry that you had to wait so long...' accurately reflects the client's emotion and keeps the focus on their immediate needs.
Reflection encourages the client to further express their feelings and helps rapidly de-escalate their agitation.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Communication: Reflection and Validation
Soru 1614Soru →

An occupational health nurse is called to the office of an employee who was just unexpectedly terminated after 20 years with the company. The employee initially threw a chair and screamed at the manager. When the nurse arrives 15 minutes later, the employee is sitting quietly, neatly organizing their desk, and states with a flat, calm affect, "It's fine. I have a very permanent solution to this problem waiting in my car. Tell my manager he won't have to worry about me ever again." Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintain a continuous, direct presence with the employee while discreetly directing another staff member to contact facility security or emergency services.

Cevap

The most critical intervention is to maintain continuous observation of the employee and immediately activate emergency services or security.
This action correctly identifies the acute lethality of the situation. The employee's sudden shift from violent agitation to calm compliance, paired with statements implying a 'permanent solution' located in their vehicle, are classic red flags for an imminent suicide attempt or act of severe violence. The absolute priority is to ensure the client cannot access their vehicle (the suspected location of the lethal means) by maintaining continuous observation while simultaneously initiating emergency protocols.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's behavioral shift and verbal statements.
The rapid shift from violent agitation to calm organization, combined with the phrase 'permanent solution... in my car' and 'won't have to worry about me ever again', indicates a formulated, imminent plan for suicide or severe violence.
Sudden calmness in a crisis often signifies that the individual has made a decision to end their life, bringing them a false sense of peace.
2
Determine the highest priority based on Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs and acute triage principles.
Immediate physical safety and prevention of access to lethal means (the car) is the absolute highest priority.
Psychological assessments and therapeutic communication are secondary when an active, lethal threat is present.
3
Select the intervention that ensures immediate safety without escalating the situation.
Staying with the client prevents them from leaving to execute their plan, while having someone else call security ensures professional intervention is on the way.
The nurse must secure the environment and obtain emergency assistance without leaving the high-risk individual alone.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing sudden mood improvement and covert lethal statements as indicators of imminent suicide risk during a situational crisis.
Soru 1615Soru →

An occupational health nurse is responding to an incident where a factory worker witnessed a severe machinery accident involving a colleague. The witness is trembling, hyperventilating, and repeats, "I should have stopped it. This is entirely my fault. I don't deserve to be here." Which of the following interventions by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Direct the conversation to explicitly ask if the worker is experiencing thoughts of self-harm; Stay physically present with the worker while demonstrating a calm and supportive demeanor

Cevap

The appropriate interventions are to explicitly ask about thoughts of self-harm and to stay physically present with the worker.
The correct interventions prioritize immediate client safety and stabilization. When a client expresses profound guilt and feelings of worthlessness (e.g., 'I don't deserve to be here'), the nurse must directly assess for suicide risk. Additionally, staying physically present with an acutely anxious, trembling, and hyperventilating client provides necessary psychological support, safety, and grounding.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current physiological and psychological presentation.
The client is exhibiting severe acute anxiety (trembling, hyperventilating) and expressing extreme survivor's guilt and worthlessness.
Identifying the severity of the crisis and immediate risks is the first step in formulating a plan of care.
2
Determine the highest priority needs based on the assessment.
The highest priorities are physiological/psychological stabilization and ensuring safety, as the client's statements hint at potential self-harm.
In acute crisis intervention, safety and stabilization always take precedence over exploring root causes or offering long-term coping strategies.
3
Select interventions that align with safety priorities and therapeutic communication guidelines.
Asking directly about self-harm addresses safety. Staying present addresses severe anxiety. Options offering false reassurance or asking 'why' are rejected.
Evidence-based practice requires direct assessment of suicide risk and prohibits communication blocks that invalidate the client's experience.

Anahtar Kavram

Crisis Intervention: Prioritizing Safety and Therapeutic Communication
Soru 1616Soru →

A nurse in a community mental health clinic is assessing clients experiencing varying psychosocial stressors. Match each client's documented statement and objective behavioral cue to the specific defense mechanism being demonstrated.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

Client A, who deeply resents their aging parent for requiring full-time care, states, 'It is an absolute blessing and a joy to dedicate every waking moment to my mother,' while aggressively scrubbing the clinic waiting room floor.
Client B, who has a history of intense anger issues and recurrent physical altercations, states, 'I found a great way to let off steam,' and has become a highly dedicated, disciplined instructor at a local mixed martial arts gym.
Client C, who verbally berated their spouse earlier in the morning, spends three hours meticulously baking the spouse's favorite cake and presents it without apologizing or discussing the prior conflict.
Client D, diagnosed with borderline personality disorder, tells the day-shift nurse, 'You are the only person here who actually cares about me; the night nurse is completely evil and wants me to suffer.'

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

Client A matches with Reaction Formation. Client B matches with Sublimation. Client C matches with Undoing. Client D matches with Splitting.
Each behavioral cue distinctly illustrates a specific ego defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves acting exactly opposite to unacceptable true feelings. Sublimation redirects harmful impulses into socially productive activities. Undoing involves performing an action to symbolically cancel out a previous unacceptable behavior. Splitting is the inability to integrate positive and negative qualities, resulting in all-or-nothing thinking.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze Client A's behavior.
Identified a contrast between underlying resentment and outward exaggerated joy.
Acting precisely opposite to one's true, unacceptable feelings indicates Reaction Formation.
2
Evaluate Client B's behavior.
Recognized the channeling of aggressive history into a constructive, disciplined outlet.
Transforming harmful impulses into a socially productive activity defines Sublimation, which is typically an adaptive mechanism.
3
Assess Client C's behavior.
Noted the attempt to reverse a negative action with a positive one without verbal communication or accountability.
Symbolically canceling out a previous unacceptable behavior with a subsequent 'good' deed defines Undoing.
4
Examine Client D's behavior.
Identified the extreme polarization of staff members into 'all good' and 'all bad'.
The inability to integrate positive and negative qualities of others, resulting in all-or-nothing thinking, is known as Splitting.

Anahtar Kavram

Defense mechanisms are unconscious psychological strategies used to cope with reality, protect self-image, and manage severe anxiety.
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1617Soru →

An oncology nurse has just finished participating in a care conference where a client's transition to palliative care was finalized. The rest of the interdisciplinary team has left, and the client is sitting alone, crying silently. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the most appropriate sequence to support this client.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first ensure privacy, then provide a supportive silent presence, acknowledge the client's distress verbally, assess their coping mechanisms, and finally mobilize external support systems.
When a client experiences acute grief or emotional distress, the nursing priority is to first establish a safe, private environment. Following this, using non-verbal therapeutic techniques like silence and physical presence allows the client to process the initial shock. Once the client is ready, the nurse should verbally acknowledge their distress and offer support. After a therapeutic connection is established, the nurse can transition to assessing the client's coping skills. Finally, the nurse mobilizes external resources by involving family or spiritual advisors to create an ongoing support network.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Establish a safe environment.
The environment is private and free from interruptions.
Privacy allows the client to express emotions freely without embarrassment.
2
Use therapeutic silence.
The nurse remains quietly at the bedside.
This provides a supportive presence and gives the client time to process the initial impact.
3
Offer self and acknowledge feelings.
The nurse states, 'I am here for you during this difficult time.'
This opens communication and validates the client's emotional experience.
4
Assess coping strategies.
The nurse explores past methods the client used during crises.
Understanding the client's coping mechanisms guides further individualized interventions.
5
Mobilize support systems.
The nurse asks if a family member or spiritual advisor should be contacted.
External support networks provide ongoing comfort and stability after the initial nursing assessment is complete.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Communication and Sequence of Psychosocial Interventions for Acute Grief
Soru 1618Soru →

A client with a history of cardiovascular disease and new-onset abdominal cramping is undergoing a physical examination at an outpatient clinic. Which techniques should the nurse implement during this assessment? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Auscultate the four abdominal quadrants for bowel sounds prior to initiating percussion or palpation.; Apply the bell of the stethoscope lightly to the skin to auscultate for low-pitched extra heart sounds.; Press the diaphragm of the stethoscope firmly against the skin to detect high-pitched gastrointestinal sounds.

Cevap

The correct techniques include auscultating the abdomen before palpation, using the bell lightly for low-pitched sounds, and using the diaphragm firmly for high-pitched sounds.
Proper physical assessment requires specific sequences and equipment usage. For the gastrointestinal system, auscultation must precede percussion and palpation to avoid artificially stimulating bowel motility, which could alter baseline findings. When using a stethoscope, the bell is designed to capture low-pitched sounds (such as extra heart sounds or bruits) and should be applied lightly. Conversely, the diaphragm is designed for high-pitched sounds (such as normal bowel and breath sounds) and requires firm pressure against the skin.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the correct sequence for an abdominal assessment.
Inspection is followed by auscultation, then percussion and palpation.
Palpating before auscultating can alter normal bowel sounds and create false findings.
2
Determine the appropriate use of stethoscope parts.
The bell is used for low-pitched sounds and the diaphragm for high-pitched sounds.
Proper instrument application ensures accurate detection of normal and abnormal physiological sounds.
3
Evaluate delegation and positioning principles.
Assessments cannot be delegated, and jugular venous distention requires head elevation.
UAPs cannot perform clinical assessments, and a completely flat position artificially distends jugular veins.

Anahtar Kavram

Physical assessment techniques and sequencing
Soru 1619Soru →

An 8-year-old child is brought to an urgent care clinic by a stepparent for a painful right arm. The nurse observes faded bruising in various stages of healing on the child's torso, and a radiograph reveals a spiral fracture of the right humerus. The stepparent states, "He is so clumsy, he fell off his skateboard yesterday." The child remains completely silent, avoids eye contact, and shrinks away when the stepparent approaches. The attending physician examines the child, splints the arm, and states to the nurse, "The mechanism of injury does not match the fracture, but we lack concrete proof of abuse. Let's discharge them to outpatient orthopedics and have the clinic social worker follow up next week to avoid making a false accusation." Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Independently and immediately contact state child protective services to report the suspected abuse.

Cevap

The priority action is to independently and immediately contact state child protective services to report the suspected abuse, regardless of the physician's instructions.
The correct action is to independently and immediately contact child protective services. Healthcare professionals, including registered nurses, are mandatory reporters. The law requires reporting based purely on 'reasonable suspicion' (such as inconsistent injury mechanisms and fearful behavior). This legal obligation is an individual duty; a physician's disagreement or desire to wait for concrete proof does not relieve the nurse of their liability or duty to protect the child.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the clinical findings against the provided history.
The spiral fracture, bruising in various stages of healing, and fearful behavior are highly suspicious for abuse and do not match the reported mechanism of injury (falling off a skateboard).
Identifying discrepancies between physical evidence and caregiver reports establishes 'reasonable suspicion' of abuse.
2
Evaluate the legal responsibilities of the registered nurse in this scenario.
The nurse recognizes their role as an individual mandatory reporter.
Mandatory reporting laws require nurses to report suspected child abuse immediately. This duty is individual and cannot be overridden by a supervisor, physician, or facility policy.
3
Determine the safest and most appropriate intervention.
The nurse must file the report immediately to ensure the child is not discharged into a dangerous environment without protective services involvement.
Delaying the report for a social worker or trying to gather absolute proof places the vulnerable child at imminent risk of further harm or death.

Anahtar Kavram

Mandatory Reporting and Professional Accountability
Soru 1620Soru →

A client on the behavioral health unit is pacing rapidly in the hallway, wringing their hands, and states, "I cannot take this anymore! Everything is falling apart." Which of the following are therapeutic nursing responses? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: You seem very distressed right now. Let's sit down and talk about what is falling apart.; I will stay right here with you while you are feeling this overwhelmed.

Cevap

The therapeutic responses involve making supportive observations ("You seem very distressed right now...") and offering self ("I will stay right here with you...").
Therapeutic communication in a psychiatric setting focuses on prioritizing the client's current feelings and emotional safety. Making observations validates the client's visible distress and encourages them to open up. Offering self (staying with the client) provides a supportive, reassuring presence during moments of acute anxiety without forcing them to talk if they are not ready.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's presentation.
The client is demonstrating acute anxiety and distress through rapid pacing, hand-wringing, and verbalizing feelings of being overwhelmed.
Recognizing the emotional state helps determine the appropriate level of intervention and support needed.
2
Evaluate each nursing response for therapeutic communication principles.
Identify which statements encourage the client to share feelings without judgment, and which statements block communication.
Therapeutic communication should focus on the client's immediate feelings and safety while avoiding traps like advice-giving or false reassurance.
3
Select the correct therapeutic responses.
The responses that offer a supportive presence and make non-judgmental observations are selected as correct.
These techniques validate the client's experience and promote a safe environment for expression.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Communication and Active Listening
Tahmini Süre:45s
ÖncekiSayfa 81 / 195Sonraki
Tüm alıştırma soruları — NCLEX-RN | Examkin