Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 921Soru →

A registered nurse is providing care for multiple clients and preparing to administer prescribed medications. Which of the following actions demonstrate safe pharmacological and parenteral practices? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Verifying the compatibility of an intravenous (IV) push medication with the continuous IV fluid prior to administration; Utilizing an electronic infusion pump for the continuous intravenous administration of regular insulin

Cevap

The safe pharmacological and parenteral practices are verifying the compatibility of an IV push medication with the continuous IV fluid, and utilizing an electronic infusion pump for the continuous IV administration of regular insulin.
Verifying the compatibility of an IV push medication with the running continuous IV fluid is essential to prevent precipitation and adverse chemical reactions inside the vascular access device. Additionally, utilizing an electronic infusion pump for high-alert medications, such as continuous regular insulin, is a critical, universally accepted safety measure to ensure precise dosing and prevent potentially fatal medication administration errors.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the core principles of safe medication administration and intravenous therapy.
Recognize that parenteral medications require strict safety checks because they bypass the body's natural defenses.
Adhering to safety protocols prevents life-threatening complications, such as embolisms from crystallized medications or profound hypoglycemia from incorrect insulin rates.
2
Evaluate each nursing action in the options for adherence to safety standards and the nurse's scope of practice.
Verifying compatibility and using infusion pumps for high-alert medications are correct safe practices. Delegating initial assessments, estimating pediatric weights, and skipping compatibility checks are unsafe.
Initial assessments are outside a UAP's scope of practice, estimating weights causes significant dosage errors, and mixing incompatible IV fluids can occlude the line or harm the client.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Pharmacological and Parenteral Administration Practices
Soru 922Soru →

A critical care nurse is caring for a client with septic shock who has a multi-lumen central venous catheter. The client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine and is now prescribed an intermittent intravenous infusion of vancomycin. Which of the following nursing actions ensure safe pharmacological and parenteral therapy administration? (Select all that apply.)

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Cevap: Designate a dedicated lumen of the central venous catheter exclusively for the continuous norepinephrine infusion.; Administer the continuous norepinephrine infusion using an electronic infusion pump with dose error reduction software.; Flush an available secondary lumen with sterile normal saline before and after administering the intermittent vancomycin dose.

Cevap

The correct actions are to designate a dedicated lumen for the norepinephrine, use an electronic infusion pump for the pressor, and flush a secondary lumen with normal saline before and after the vancomycin dose.
Safe parenteral administration of high-alert medications requires strict adherence to safety protocols. Norepinephrine is a potent vasopressor used to sustain blood pressure in septic shock; it must be administered via a dedicated central line lumen using an electronic infusion pump to ensure precise, uninterrupted delivery. Vancomycin is an intermittent antibiotic that should be administered through a separate, properly flushed lumen to maintain patency and avoid incompatibilities.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's condition and the prescribed therapies.
The client has septic shock (hemodynamically unstable) and is receiving norepinephrine (a high-alert continuous vasopressor) and vancomycin (an intermittent antibiotic requiring specific rate controls).
Identifying the critical nature of the client and the specific requirements of each medication is the first step in safe parenteral administration.
2
Determine the requirements for safe norepinephrine administration.
Norepinephrine requires a dedicated central line lumen, an electronic infusion pump, and must never be paused or mixed with other medications.
Even minor fluctuations in a vasopressor infusion rate can cause severe cardiovascular instability.
3
Determine the requirements for safe vancomycin administration.
Vancomycin must be infused slowly over at least 60 minutes via an available separate lumen, with normal saline flushes before and after.
Rapid vancomycin infusion causes Red Man Syndrome, and using a separate flushed lumen prevents drug incompatibilities.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of high-alert continuous vasopressors and intermittent intravenous antibiotics.
Soru 923Soru →

A critical care nurse is managing a client with severe sepsis. The client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine.

Client Data:
- Weight: 220220 lb
- Current mean arterial pressure (MAP): 5454 mm Hg
- Current infusion pump rate: 1818 mL/hr
- Medication concentration: Norepinephrine 88 mg in 250250 mL 5%5\% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
- Provider titration protocol: "Increase norepinephrine by 0.040.04 mcg/kg/min every 55 minutes until MAP is ≥65\geq 65 mm Hg."

The nurse determines the need to increase the infusion rate according to the protocol. What should be the newly programmed infusion pump rate in mL/hr?

*Round the final answer to the nearest tenth.*

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 25.5

Cevap

The new infusion pump rate should be set to 25.5 mL/hr.
To find the new pump rate, the nurse must first determine how much extra volume per hour is needed to satisfy the 0.040.04 mcg/kg/min increase. By converting the client's weight to 100100 kg, the required dose increase is 44 mcg/min, which equals 240240 mcg/hr. Using the bag concentration of 3232 mcg/mL, the required volume increase is 7.57.5 mL/hr. Adding this to the baseline rate of 1818 mL/hr yields the final correct rate of 25.525.5 mL/hr.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert weight to kilograms.
220220 lb / 2.22.2 = 100100 kg.
Weight-based dosing requires the client's weight in kg.
2
Calculate the dose increment per minute.
0.040.04 mcg/kg/min * 100100 kg = 44 mcg/min.
This determines how much additional medication the client needs every minute based on the protocol.
3
Convert the dose increment to an hourly rate.
44 mcg/min * 6060 min/hr = 240240 mcg/hr.
Infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr, so the dose must be expressed per hour.
4
Determine the concentration of the IV bag in mcg/mL.
88 mg = 80008000 mcg. 80008000 mcg / 250250 mL = 3232 mcg/mL.
Medication is ordered in mcg, but supplied in mg. Both units must match to find the volume.
5
Calculate the volume increment in mL/hr.
240240 mcg/hr / 3232 mcg/mL = 7.57.5 mL/hr.
This isolates the exact amount of fluid needed to deliver the required increase in medication.
6
Add the volume increment to the current infusion rate.
1818 mL/hr + 7.57.5 mL/hr = 25.525.5 mL/hr.
The protocol requires increasing the current rate, not replacing it with only the increment.

Anahtar Kavram

Advanced medication titration requires calculating the incremental dose increase based on weight and concentration, then accurately adding that newly calculated volume rate to the baseline continuous infusion rate.
Soru 924Soru →

A critical care nurse is managing a client with a double-lumen central venous catheter. One lumen is actively infusing continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The second lumen is infusing continuous norepinephrine to maintain the client's mean arterial pressure. The provider writes a new order for an intravenous antibiotic, piperacillin-tazobactam, to be administered over 30 minutes. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the prescribed antibiotic

Cevap

Establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the prescribed antibiotic.
The most appropriate action is to establish a new peripheral intravenous site. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires a strictly dedicated line due to its high glucose content and risk of precipitation, meaning it cannot be shared or paused for other medications. Additionally, norepinephrine is a life-sustaining vasoactive drip; connecting a secondary infusion to this line alters flow dynamics and can inadvertently deliver a dangerous bolus of the vasopressor to the client. Stopping the vasopressor is also contraindicated due to the immediate risk of cardiovascular collapse. Therefore, obtaining alternative IV access is mandatory.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the current use of the central venous catheter lumens.
One lumen is dedicated to TPN, and the other is dedicated to a continuous vasopressor (norepinephrine).
Identifying the current infusions is necessary to determine if a compatible and safe port is available for a new medication.
2
Analyze the safety guidelines for TPN administration.
TPN requires a strictly dedicated intravenous line.
Accessing a TPN line for other medications increases the risk of severe central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI) and drug-nutrient precipitation.
3
Analyze the safety guidelines for continuous vasoactive infusions.
Norepinephrine cannot be paused, and secondary infusions should not be piggybacked into its line.
Altering the flow rate of the carrier fluid in a vasopressor line can cause a sudden, life-threatening bolus of the medication or a dangerous drop in blood pressure.
4
Determine the safest method for antibiotic administration.
A new peripheral IV must be started.
Since both existing central lumens are occupied by critical, dedicated infusions that cannot be safely shared or interrupted, alternative access is mandatory.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of parenteral therapies requires maintaining dedicated lines for TPN and avoiding the interruption or flow alteration of continuous life-sustaining vasopressors.
Soru 925Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client with severe anemia. Which of the following intravenous fluids should the nurse use to prime the blood administration tubing?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 0.9% sodium chloride

Cevap

0.9% sodium chloride
Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) is the only acceptable intravenous fluid to use for priming tubing and flushing lines during a blood transfusion. It is completely isotonic with red blood cells and contains no calcium, preventing both cellular hemolysis and clot formation within the administration set.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the prescribed therapy to be administered.
The nurse is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs).
Identifying the specific biologic product is necessary to determine fluid compatibility requirements.
2
Determine the compatible intravenous fluid for blood transfusions.
0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) is identified as the only safe choice.
Using any other fluid risks hemolysis or coagulation of the donor red blood cells.

Anahtar Kavram

Blood Product Administration Compatibility
Soru 926Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) antibiotic piggyback to a client who is receiving a continuous primary IV infusion. Which of the following actions must the nurse prioritize before connecting the secondary infusion?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Verify the compatibility of the antibiotic with the primary continuous IV fluid using a drug reference.

Cevap

Verify the compatibility of the antibiotic with the primary continuous IV fluid using a drug reference.
Before administering any secondary medication through an existing IV line, the nurse must verify that the medication is compatible with the primary continuous fluid. If incompatible medications mix in the IV tubing, they can form a precipitate, leading to catheter occlusion or life-threatening emboli.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the clinical task.
The nurse is preparing to administer a secondary IV infusion (piggyback) into an existing continuous IV line.
Understanding the procedure helps identify the associated risks.
2
Recall safety principles for IV medication administration.
When two fluids or medications share the same IV tubing, they must be physically and chemically compatible.
Incompatibility can cause precipitation, which can occlude the catheter or cause an embolism in the client.
3
Determine the priority nursing action.
The nurse must consult a standard drug reference to ensure the antibiotic and the primary fluid are compatible before proceeding.
Client safety is the highest priority, and preventing adverse drug events requires proactive verification.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous (IV) Medication Compatibility
Soru 927Soru →

A nurse is preparing to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in a single syringe for a client with diabetes mellitus. Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence for drawing up these medications.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: Roll the NPH vial, inject air into NPH, inject air into regular, withdraw regular insulin, and finally withdraw NPH insulin.
The standard procedure for mixing insulins follows the 'clear before cloudy' rule. First, the NPH (cloudy) suspension is gently mixed by rolling. Then, air is injected into the NPH vial, followed by air into the regular (clear) vial. The regular insulin is drawn up first to prevent its contamination by the NPH insulin, ensuring the rapid-acting properties of the regular insulin are maintained in the vial for future use. Finally, the NPH insulin is carefully drawn up to reach the total combined dose.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Roll the NPH insulin vial
The insulin suspension is mixed properly.
NPH insulin settles and must be mixed gently to avoid bubbles.
2
Inject air into the NPH vial
Pressure is equalized in the NPH vial.
Prevents negative pressure when drawing up the dose later.
3
Inject air into the regular insulin vial
Pressure is equalized in the regular insulin vial.
Prepares the vial for immediate withdrawal of the medication.
4
Withdraw the regular insulin
The clear insulin is drawn into the syringe.
Clear insulin must be drawn first to avoid contaminating the fast-acting vial with cloudy insulin.
5
Withdraw the NPH insulin
The required total volume is achieved in the syringe.
Cloudy insulin is drawn last to complete the administration preparation.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Preparation of Mixed Insulins
Soru 928Soru →

An older adult client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of unfractionated heparin for the treatment of a deep vein thrombosis. The client's most recent activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 118 seconds. During an assessment, the client reports a sudden onset of severe, localized lumbar back pain. The nurse notes a heart rate of 124 bpm, a blood pressure of 84/48 mmHg, and pale, diaphoretic skin. Which action should the nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the continuous heparin infusion immediately and prepare to administer intravenous protamine sulfate.

Cevap

The immediate priority is to stop the continuous heparin infusion and prepare to administer the antidote, intravenous protamine sulfate.
The client's presentation of sudden severe lumbar pain, hypotension, and tachycardia in the presence of a highly supratherapeutic aPTT (118 seconds) is the classic clinical triad for a retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Because the client is in active hypovolemic shock secondary to heparin toxicity, the absolute highest priority is to immediately stop the offending parenteral therapy (the heparin infusion) and prepare the specific pharmacological antidote, protamine sulfate, to reverse the anticoagulation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the laboratory data
The aPTT of 118 seconds is significantly supratherapeutic (normal therapeutic range is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control, or approximately 40-70 seconds), indicating a severe bleeding risk.
Establishing the pharmacological state confirms that the client is experiencing heparin toxicity.
2
Evaluate the clinical presentation
Sudden lumbar back pain combined with tachycardia (124 bpm), hypotension (84/48 mmHg), and diaphoresis indicates a retroperitoneal hemorrhage leading to hypovolemic shock.
Retroperitoneal bleeding is a known, life-threatening adverse effect of severe anticoagulation toxicity that requires immediate recognition.
3
Determine the priority pharmacological intervention
The active administration of the anticoagulant must be halted to prevent further bleeding, and the specific antidote must be prepared.
Treating the root cause (heparin toxicity) takes absolute priority over symptomatic management of pain or routine protocol adjustments.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing severe parenteral drug toxicity (retroperitoneal hemorrhage from heparin) and prioritizing immediate cessation of the infusion alongside antidote administration.
Soru 929Soru →

During morning interdisciplinary rounds, the healthcare team reviews the treatment plan for a 74-year-old client admitted with a severe systemic infection, chronic kidney disease, and atrial fibrillation. The client is currently receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion, intermittent intravenous vancomycin, and a scheduled daily oral dose of digoxin. The morning laboratory report indicates a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) and a serum creatinine of 2.4 mg/dL (212.2 mcmol/L). Which nursing interventions are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Withhold the scheduled oral digoxin and report the laboratory findings to the prescribing healthcare provider.; Inquire if the client is experiencing any visual disturbances, such as blurred vision or yellow-green halos.; Assess the client's auditory function for new-onset tinnitus or difficulty hearing conversational tones.

Cevap

The correct interventions include withholding the digoxin, assessing for visual disturbances, and monitoring for auditory changes.
The correct actions focus on mitigating identified risks based on the client's clinical and laboratory profile. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which significantly increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. This risk is further compounded by an elevated creatinine of 2.4 mg/dL, indicating renal impairment that delays the excretion of both digoxin and vancomycin. Therefore, withholding the digoxin, notifying the provider, and assessing for specific toxicity signs (visual disturbances for digoxin, auditory changes for vancomycin) are essential and safe nursing interventions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's laboratory values in relation to the prescribed medications.
The potassium level is low (3.2 mEq/L) and the creatinine is elevated (2.4 mg/dL), indicating hypokalemia and renal impairment.
Laboratory values directly impact medication pharmacokinetics, safety profiles, and clearance rates.
2
Evaluate the impact of hypokalemia and renal impairment on digoxin therapy.
Hypokalemia sensitizes the myocardium to digoxin, and renal impairment decreases its excretion, massively increasing the risk of toxicity.
Identifying toxicity risk dictates the immediate need to withhold the dose, notify the provider, and assess for symptoms like visual halos.
3
Evaluate the safety profile of vancomycin in the context of renal impairment.
Elevated creatinine indicates decreased renal clearance, which significantly increases the risk of vancomycin-induced ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.
This physiological vulnerability requires targeted nursing assessments for hearing loss and tinnitus.
4
Assess the safety of the proposed intravenous administration techniques and delegation actions.
Vancomycin and heparin are physically incompatible, IV assessment cannot be delegated to UAP, and vancomycin must infuse over at least 60 minutes.
Ensuring adherence to fundamental pharmacological safety principles and legal scope of practice regulations prevents direct client harm.

Anahtar Kavram

Pharmacological safety principles involving drug toxicity risks, intravenous compatibility, and appropriate delegation.
Soru 930Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous piggyback (IVPB) antibiotic through an established, continuously infusing primary peripheral IV line. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence to safely initiate the secondary infusion.

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Cevap

The correct chronological sequence is: Verify compatibility, clamp and spike the secondary bag, scrub the Y-site port, connect and backprime the tubing, and lower the primary fluid bag.
Establishing an IVPB requires a systematic approach to ensure patient safety and proper medication delivery. First, the nurse must always verify compatibility to prevent adverse chemical reactions. Next, the secondary tubing is prepared by clamping and spiking the bag. Aseptic technique is then maintained by vigorously scrubbing the primary Y-site above the pump. The tubing is connected and backprimed to remove air without losing medication. Finally, utilizing gravity and hydrostatic pressure, the primary bag is lowered so the pump draws exclusively from the higher secondary bag until it is empty.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Verify the compatibility of the prescribed antibiotic with the primary intravenous solution.
The nurse confirms the medications can mix safely.
Incompatibility can cause chemical reactions or precipitation, which can be life-threatening if infused into the patient's bloodstream.
2
Close the roller clamp on the secondary tubing and spike the antibiotic bag.
The secondary set is attached to the medication bag without fluid leaking.
The roller clamp must be closed before spiking the bag to prevent the medication from immediately running out of the tubing and being wasted.
3
Scrub the proximal Y-site port on the primary tubing with an antimicrobial swab.
The connection port is disinfected.
Scrubbing the hub (usually for 15 seconds) is a critical infection control measure to prevent introducing microorganisms directly into the patient's vascular system.
4
Connect the secondary tubing to the primary line and backprime to remove air.
The secondary line is primed with primary fluid, eliminating air bubbles.
Backpriming ensures the tubing is entirely fluid-filled without wasting any of the antibiotic dose, which is especially important for small-volume medications.
5
Suspend the primary fluid bag lower than the antibiotic bag using a hanger hook.
The secondary medication bag is positioned higher than the primary bag.
Infusion pumps pull fluid from the highest source due to hydrostatic pressure. Lowering the primary bag ensures the IVPB infuses completely before the primary fluid resumes.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Piggyback (IVPB) Administration Sequencing
Soru 931Soru →

The nurse is reviewing new medication prescriptions for a client admitted with severe hypokalemia. The healthcare provider has ordered 40 mEq of intravenous potassium chloride (KCl) mixed in 100 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride to be infused immediately. The client currently has a single 22-gauge peripheral intravenous catheter in the left hand. Which action by the nurse represents the safest pharmacological practice?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the medication and contact the provider to request diluting the potassium dose in a larger volume of intravenous fluid.

Cevap

The correct action is to withhold the medication and contact the provider to request diluting the potassium dose in a larger volume of intravenous fluid.
Intravenous potassium chloride is a high-alert medication and a known vesicant. For peripheral administration, the maximum safe concentration is typically 40 mEq/L (or 10 mEq per 100 mL). The ordered concentration of 40 mEq in 100 mL is extremely hyperosmolar and will cause severe phlebitis, burning, and potential tissue necrosis in a small peripheral vein. The nurse must withhold the dose and request that it be diluted in a larger volume of fluid (such as 1,000 mL) or request an order for a central venous catheter.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the prescribed medication dosage and its concentration.
The order is for 40 mEq of KCl in 100 mL of normal saline, which equates to a concentration of 400 mEq/L.
Calculating the concentration is required to determine if the fluid is safe for the current venous access.
2
Evaluate the client's current venous access against established safety parameters for potassium administration.
The client has a 22-gauge peripheral catheter. The maximum safe peripheral concentration for KCl is typically 40 mEq/L (or 10 mEq per 100 mL).
Highly concentrated potassium is a severe vesicant that damages small peripheral veins.
3
Identify the clinical risk of the current order.
Administering 40 mEq in only 100 mL through a peripheral line poses an imminent risk for severe chemical phlebitis, extreme pain, and tissue necrosis.
Safety standards dictate that highly concentrated KCl must be administered via a central venous catheter.
4
Formulate the priority nursing intervention.
The nurse must hold the unsafe order and advocate for the client by requesting appropriate dilution (e.g., 40 mEq in 1,000 mL) or placement of a central line.
Nurses are legally and ethically responsible for preventing patient harm from unsafe medical orders.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of intravenous potassium chloride requires strict adherence to both maximum infusion rates (10 mEq/hr peripherally) and maximum concentrations (40 mEq/L peripherally) to prevent fatal dysrhythmias and severe venous injury.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 932Soru →

A nurse is assigned to care for a client who is experiencing recurrent seizures and has a new prescription for an intravenous loading dose of phenytoin. The client currently has a continuous peripheral intravenous infusion of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) running at 100 mL/hr. Which nursing actions are required to safely prepare and administer this medication? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Flush the peripheral intravenous line with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after the phenytoin administration.; Attach a 0.22-micron to 0.52-micron in-line filter to the intravenous tubing prior to initiating the infusion.; Control the administration rate via an electronic infusion pump to ensure it does not exceed 50 mg per minute.

Cevap

The correct actions are to flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after administration, attach a 0.22-micron to 0.52-micron in-line filter, and control the administration rate so it does not exceed 50 mg per minute.
Phenytoin is a highly alkaline medication that rapidly precipitates when mixed with dextrose solutions; therefore, the intravenous line must be flushed with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after administration. An in-line filter (0.22 to 0.52 micron) is essential to trap any microcrystals that may form and prevent them from entering the client's systemic circulation. Additionally, rapid intravenous administration of phenytoin can cause severe cardiovascular collapse, including profound hypotension and arrhythmias, so the rate must strictly never exceed 50 mg per minute.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the current intravenous fluid compatibility.
Identify that the continuous D5W infusion is incompatible with phenytoin.
Phenytoin is highly alkaline and precipitates in dextrose, meaning the line must be completely cleared with a 0.9% sodium chloride flush.
2
Determine the necessary equipment for administration.
Select an in-line 0.22-micron to 0.52-micron filter for the intravenous tubing.
Filters are mandatory for intravenous phenytoin to trap microcrystals that form due to the drug's inherently low solubility.
3
Establish the maximum safe administration rate.
Set the infusion pump to deliver the medication at a rate no faster than 50 mg per minute.
Rapid intravenous infusion of phenytoin directly causes severe cardiovascular collapse, including hypotension and bradycardia.
4
Identify the appropriate nursing scope for client monitoring.
Retain the responsibility for continuous ECG and hemodynamic monitoring.
The RN cannot delegate assessments requiring advanced clinical judgment to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Phenytoin Administration Safety Protocol
Soru 933Soru →

Fifteen minutes after the initiation of a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion, a client reports sudden severe lower back pain and develops chills. Which action must the nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the transfusion immediately and keep the vein open with normal saline.

Cevap

The nurse must immediately stop the blood transfusion and maintain intravenous access with normal saline.
Severe lower back pain and sudden chills shortly after starting a blood transfusion are hallmark signs of an acute hemolytic reaction. The absolute highest priority is to stop the infusion of the incompatible blood immediately to prevent further physiological harm. Maintaining the IV line with normal saline is the critical next step to keep venous access open for emergency interventions and to flush the line without pushing more blood into the client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's symptoms.
The lower back pain and sudden chills indicate a high probability of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Recognizing adverse reactions to parenteral therapies is the first step in clinical judgment.
2
Determine the highest priority intervention to prevent harm.
The immediate cessation of the blood product is chosen as the priority.
Continuing the transfusion, even at a slower rate or while gathering more assessment data, will infuse more incompatible cells and worsen the life-threatening condition.
3
Maintain the intravenous access.
Sterile normal saline is infused through the IV line.
The client will likely need emergency medications, fluid resuscitation, and blood pressure support, making a patent IV line critical.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
Soru 934Soru →

The nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client via a nasogastric tube. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the steps in the correct sequence from first to last.)

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first elevate the head of the bed, then verify tube placement, next check the gastric residual volume, and finally flush the tube with water.
Safe administration of enteral feedings requires a strict sequence to prevent aspiration and ensure proper digestion. Positioning the client upright is the universal first step for airway protection. Once the client is safe, the nurse verifies the tube is in the correct location. After confirming placement, the nurse checks the residual volume to ensure the client is digesting properly. Finally, flushing the tube confirms patency immediately before initiating the feeding.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elevate the head of the bed.
Client is positioned safely at 30 to 45 degrees.
Reduces the immediate risk of aspiration before manipulating the feeding tube.
2
Verify tube placement.
Confirmation that the tube is in the stomach.
Ensures that subsequent fluids will not enter the lungs.
3
Check gastric residual volume.
Measurement of stomach contents.
Determines if the stomach is emptying properly before adding more volume.
4
Flush the tube.
Tube is cleared and patent.
Prepares the line for the feeding formula and prevents clogging.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Enteral Nutrition Administration
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 935Soru →

A nurse is preparing to obtain a blood specimen for laboratory testing from a client's multi-lumen central venous catheter (CVC). The selected lumen currently has a continuous infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Arrange the following steps for obtaining the blood sample in the correct clinical sequence.

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct clinical sequence is to first pause the infusion, disinfect the hub, withdraw a discard sample, obtain the diagnostic blood sample, and finally flush the line to maintain patency.
Obtaining a blood specimen from a central venous catheter requires a strict sequence to ensure infection control and sample accuracy. The infusion must first be paused to prevent hemodilution. Next, the hub must be scrubbed with an antiseptic to prevent a central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI). A discard volume of blood must then be withdrawn to clear the dead space of the catheter. After the discard, the diagnostic sample is drawn using a new syringe. Finally, the catheter must be flushed immediately with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent blood from clotting within the lumen.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Pause the continuous intravenous infusion.
The flow of IV fluid is halted.
Prevents hemodilution of the blood sample with the infusing saline, which would cause false laboratory values.
2
Scrub the needleless connector hub with an appropriate antiseptic.
The access point is disinfected.
Prevents the introduction of external pathogens into the central circulation, minimizing the risk of infection.
3
Attach a syringe and withdraw the initial blood sample to discard.
The catheter's dead space is cleared.
Removes residual IV fluids from the catheter lumen so the final sample reflects the client's actual circulating blood levels.
4
Attach a new sterile syringe and withdraw the blood sample for the laboratory test.
An unadulterated diagnostic sample is obtained.
Provides an accurate specimen for laboratory analysis.
5
Flush the catheter lumen with sterile 0.9% sodium chloride.
The catheter is cleared of whole blood.
Maintains catheter patency by preventing red blood cells from clotting within the lumen.

Anahtar Kavram

Central Venous Catheter (CVC) Blood Sampling Procedure
Soru 936Soru →

A client is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of unfractionated heparin for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. Routine morning laboratory results reveal a sudden decrease in the client's platelet count from 180,000/mm³ (180 x 10^9/L) on admission to 60,000/mm³ (60 x 10^9/L) today. The client reports no active bleeding. Which action is the priority for the nurse to take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the continuous heparin infusion and immediately alert the healthcare provider.

Cevap

The priority action is to immediately stop the heparin infusion and alert the healthcare provider due to the suspected development of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT).
The correct action is to immediately stop the heparin infusion and notify the provider. A rapid drop in platelets by more than 50% from baseline in a client receiving heparin strongly indicates Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT). HIT is a paradoxical, immune-mediated adverse reaction that causes a hypercoagulable state, increasing the risk of life-threatening thrombosis. The absolute priority is to withdraw all heparin products immediately.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's laboratory trends in the context of their current pharmacological therapy.
The client has experienced a dramatic drop in platelets (greater than 50% decrease) from 180,000/mm³ to 60,000/mm³ while receiving an intravenous heparin infusion.
Monitoring daily platelet counts is critical for clients on continuous heparin to detect early signs of adverse immune reactions.
2
Interpret the clinical significance of the severe platelet reduction.
The rapid depletion of platelets, even in the absence of active bleeding, strongly suggests Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT), a life-threatening, prothrombotic complication.
Recognizing HIT is essential because it paradoxically increases the risk of clotting despite the low platelet count.
3
Determine the immediate nursing priority based on the suspected complication.
The nurse must instantly stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider so a non-heparin anticoagulant can be prescribed.
Removing the offending pharmacological agent is the only way to halt the destructive immune cascade and prevent severe thrombotic events.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and Management of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Soru 937Soru →

A 78-year-old client is 2 days postoperative following a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach). The client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and a recent stroke resulting in dysphagia. They are receiving continuous enteral feeding via a nasogastric (NG) tube. The client is intermittently confused and attempting to pull at the NG tube. Which nursing action is most appropriate when providing basic care and comfort?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintain the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees, utilize an abduction wedge when repositioning the client to the unoperated side, and apply a secondary securement device or tube camouflage to deter pulling.

Cevap

The correct action balances respiratory and feeding needs by keeping the head of the bed at 30 to 45 degrees, protects the hip joint with an abduction wedge, and uses non-restrictive alternatives to prevent tube pulling.
The correct action demonstrates high-level clinical judgment by synthesizing multiple complex care needs. A 30 to 45-degree head elevation safely prevents aspiration during continuous enteral feeding and assists with COPD breathing effort, while strictly avoiding a 90-degree angle that would violate posterior hip precautions. Utilizing an abduction wedge prevents adduction, and using tube camouflage is an appropriate, less-restrictive alternative to physical restraints.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's postoperative positioning requirements.
Posterior hip arthroplasty requires preventing hip flexion of 90 degrees or greater, internal rotation, and adduction.
To prevent dislocation of the newly placed hip prosthesis.
2
Evaluate the respiratory and nutritional positioning needs.
Continuous NG feeding and a history of COPD require elevating the head of the bed.
To prevent pulmonary aspiration of enteral formula and to facilitate downward movement of the diaphragm for lung expansion.
3
Synthesize the conflicting positioning needs to find a safe compromise.
A 30 to 45-degree elevation satisfies the airway and feeding requirements without exceeding the dangerous 90-degree hip flexion limit.
Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (90 degrees) would violate the hip precautions and risk dislocation.
4
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention for the client's confused behavior and tube pulling.
Implement less restrictive safety alternatives, such as tube camouflage or specialized garments, while assessing for the root cause of the sudden confusion.
Physical restraints are a last resort, and acute confusion in an older adult is abnormal, often pointing to hypoxia, infection, or delirium.

Anahtar Kavram

Complex client positioning requiring synthesis of surgical precautions, aspiration prevention, and restraint alternatives.
Soru 938Soru →

A client admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of regular insulin at 0.1 units/kg/hr0.1\text{ units/kg/hr}. The client's baseline serum potassium was 5.4 mEq/L5.4\text{ mEq/L} and blood glucose was 680 mg/dL680\text{ mg/dL}. Four hours later, the current blood glucose is 245 mg/dL245\text{ mg/dL}, and the cardiac monitor reveals new-onset premature ventricular contractions and prominent U waves. The current primary IV fluid is 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride infusing at 150 mL/hr150\text{ mL/hr}. Based on these findings, which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate a primary IV fluid containing 5%5\% dextrose and verify the prescription for a continuous intravenous potassium chloride additive.

Cevap

The priority is to change the primary IV fluid to include 5%5\% dextrose and begin continuous intravenous potassium replacement.
In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), continuous intravenous insulin shifts potassium intracellularly, frequently causing severe hypokalemia. The presence of prominent U waves and premature ventricular contractions confirms this life-threatening complication, necessitating immediate potassium replacement. Concurrently, when the client's blood glucose falls below 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL} (13.9 mmol/L13.9\text{ mmol/L}), dextrose must be added to the primary IV fluid. This prevents hypoglycemia and allows the life-saving insulin infusion to continue running until the metabolic acidosis and anion gap are fully resolved. The correct action synthesizes both of these critical parenteral therapy protocols.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the current blood glucose level of 245 mg/dL245\text{ mg/dL}.
The blood glucose has fallen below the critical threshold of 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL}.
Standard DKA protocols require adding dextrose to IV fluids when glucose falls below 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL} to prevent hypoglycemia, allowing the continuous insulin infusion to remain active until the ketoacidosis fully resolves.
2
Interpret the electrocardiogram changes (premature ventricular contractions and prominent U waves).
These ECG changes are classic clinical indicators of severe hypokalemia.
Continuous IV insulin therapy drives both glucose and potassium from the intravascular space into the intracellular space, rapidly depleting serum potassium levels even if baseline values were normal or elevated.
3
Synthesize the findings to determine the priority pharmacological intervention.
The client requires concurrent administration of IV dextrose (to safely continue insulin) and IV potassium chloride (to treat the arrhythmias).
Addressing the life-threatening electrolyte imbalance while maintaining the correct fluid transition is the cornerstone of safe DKA parenteral therapy.

Anahtar Kavram

Pharmacological Management of DKA: Fluid Transition and Electrolyte Shifts
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 939Soru →

A healthcare provider prescribes an intravenous infusion of dopamine for a client diagnosed with cardiogenic shock. The prescribed dose is 10 mcg/kg/min10 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 176 lb176 \text{ lb}. The pharmacy dispenses a pre-mixed bag containing 800 mg800 \text{ mg} of dopamine in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water. The nurse should set the intravenous infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Record your answer as a whole number).

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 15

Cevap

15
To safely administer a weight-based continuous intravenous infusion, precise unit conversions for weight (pounds to kilograms), time (minutes to hours), and drug mass (micrograms to milligrams) are necessary. By calculating the hourly required dose (48 mg/hr48 \text{ mg/hr}) and dividing it by the concentration of the dispensed fluid (3.2 mg/mL3.2 \text{ mg/mL}), the correct and safe infusion rate is determined to be 15 mL/hr15 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
176 lb÷2.2=80 kg176 \text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 80 \text{ kg}
Weight-based medication dosing requires the client's weight to be precisely measured in kilograms.
2
Calculate the total dose required per minute.
80 kg×10 mcg/kg/min=800 mcg/min80 \text{ kg} \times 10 \text{ mcg/kg/min} = 800 \text{ mcg/min}
This establishes the specific therapeutic dose required for this individual client.
3
Convert the dose from per-minute to per-hour.
800 mcg/min×60 min/hr=48,000 mcg/hr800 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 48,000 \text{ mcg/hr}
Standard intravenous infusion pumps are programmed in mL per hour, requiring an hourly drug rate.
4
Convert the required hourly dose from micrograms to milligrams.
48,000 mcg/hr÷1,000 mcg/mg=48 mg/hr48,000 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 1,000 \text{ mcg/mg} = 48 \text{ mg/hr}
The dispensed medication concentration is provided in milligrams; units must match before final calculation.
5
Determine the concentration of the dispensed medication.
800 mg÷250 mL=3.2 mg/mL800 \text{ mg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 3.2 \text{ mg/mL}
Determining the concentration (mg per single mL) simplifies the calculation of the final fluid volume.
6
Calculate the final infusion rate.
48 mg/hr÷3.2 mg/mL=15 mL/hr48 \text{ mg/hr} \div 3.2 \text{ mg/mL} = 15 \text{ mL/hr}
This yields the exact fluid volume the pump must deliver each hour to administer the prescribed medication dose.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based Intravenous Medication Calculations
Soru 940Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of intravenous (IV) furosemide via direct IV push into a client's continuous peripheral infusion of 5% dextrose in water (D5W). Which of the following actions indicate safe medication administration? (Select all that apply)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Verify that furosemide is compatible with the continuous 5% dextrose in water (D5W) infusion before administration.; Administer the furosemide slowly over 1 to 2 minutes to reduce the risk of adverse effects.; Pinch the primary IV tubing immediately above the injection port while actively pushing the medication.

Cevap

The correct actions are verifying compatibility with the primary fluid, administering the medication slowly over 1 to 2 minutes, and pinching the tubing above the port while pushing.
Safe IV push administration requires verifying compatibility to prevent line precipitation, calculating exact dosages, administering the drug at the recommended safe rate (slowly for furosemide to prevent ototoxicity), and using proper technique such as pinching the tubing above the port so the medication flows directly into the patient.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the type of medication administration being performed.
The nurse is administering a direct IV push medication into an existing continuous IV line.
Understanding the route determines the specific safety protocols required.
2
Determine the necessary pre-administration safety checks.
The nurse must calculate the correct dose volume and verify that furosemide is compatible with D5W.
Calculations prevent overdose, and compatibility checks prevent chemical precipitation in the IV line.
3
Identify correct physical administration techniques for an IV push.
The medication should be pushed slowly, and the primary tubing must be pinched above the injection port.
Slow administration prevents adverse effects (like ototoxicity for furosemide), and pinching the tubing ensures the medication goes to the patient.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Intravenous Push (IVP) Administration Principles
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Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 47 | Examkin