Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1661Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate for the management of severe preeclampsia. Which of the following clinical findings indicates severe toxicity and requires the nurse to immediately stop the infusion and prepare the prescribed antidote?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute

Cevap

A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates severe magnesium toxicity, requiring immediate cessation of the infusion.
Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant. A respiratory rate below 12 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, which is a hallmark sign of severe magnesium toxicity. Because this compromises the client's airway and breathing, the nurse's immediate priority is to stop the infusion and administer the antidote, calcium gluconate, to prevent respiratory arrest.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current pharmacological treatment and its mechanism of action.
The client is receiving magnesium sulfate, a central nervous system depressant used to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia.
Understanding the medication's physiological effects helps differentiate between expected side effects and life-threatening toxicity.
2
Evaluate each clinical finding against the known therapeutic and toxic parameters for magnesium sulfate.
Warmth/flushing and 2+ DTRs are normal or expected findings. A urine output of 45 mL/hr indicates adequate renal clearance. However, a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min is dangerously low.
Accurate interpretation of assessment data ensures that normal side effects are monitored while true toxicities are aggressively managed.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the identified toxic finding.
The respiratory depression necessitates immediate discontinuation of the magnesium sulfate infusion and the administration of the antidote (calcium gluconate) to restore respiratory function.
Respiratory depression directly compromises the airway and breathing (ABCs), making it an absolute medical emergency.

Anahtar Kavram

Magnesium sulfate toxicity presents with absent deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression (fewer than 12 breaths/min), hypotension, and decreased level of consciousness. The priority action is to stop the infusion and administer calcium gluconate.
Soru 1662Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a critically ill client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine through a peripheral vein in the right forearm. The nurse assesses the insertion site and notes it is blanched, cold, and swollen, and the client reports severe burning pain. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority to mitigate tissue necrosis.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stop the infusion, then aspirate residual medication, remove the catheter, administer subcutaneous phentolamine, and finally elevate the extremity.
The protocol for vesicant extravasation prioritizes limiting the exposure to the chemical agent immediately. The sequence follows a strict logic: halt the source, remove residual agent from the micro-environment, remove the delivery device, chemically neutralize the agent in the tissue, and provide mechanical support to reduce swelling.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the norepinephrine infusion immediately.
Halts the continuous flow of the vesicant into the subcutaneous tissue.
Immediate cessation of the infusion is the most critical first step to minimize the total volume of tissue-damaging medication delivered.
2
Attach a sterile syringe to the intravenous catheter and attempt to aspirate residual medication.
Removes trapped norepinephrine from the catheter lumen and the immediate venous puncture site.
Aspiration prevents the remaining medication in the tubing and catheter from being pushed or leaking into the tissue when the catheter is manipulated or removed.
3
Remove the intravenous catheter from the client's forearm.
Eliminates the source device from the compromised tissue.
The catheter must be removed prior to administering the antidote to ensure no further vesicant is accidentally flushed into the tissue and to clear the area for subcutaneous injections.
4
Administer prescribed phentolamine subcutaneously in a circular fashion around the blanched area.
Reverses the extreme localized alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction caused by norepinephrine.
Phentolamine induces local vasodilation, restoring perfusion to the ischemic tissue and preventing necrosis. It must be administered directly into the affected tissue, not intravenously.
5
Elevate the client's right arm on pillows.
Utilizes gravity to improve venous and lymphatic drainage from the affected limb.
Elevation reduces hydrostatic pressure at the capillary level, which helps to decrease the accumulation of edema in the compromised tissue.

Anahtar Kavram

Vesicant Extravasation Management and Complication Prevention
Soru 1663Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who presents to the emergency department with severe hematemesis. Which clinical manifestations indicate the client is experiencing the compensatory (early) stage of hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Restlessness and mild confusion; Apical heart rate of 118 beats/minute; Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute

Cevap

The correct findings indicating the compensatory (early) stage of hypovolemic shock are restlessness and mild confusion, an apical heart rate of 118 beats/minute, and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute.
In the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, the body attempts to maintain tissue perfusion and cardiac output despite volume loss. The sympathetic nervous system stimulates an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) and respiratory rate (tachypnea). Blood is shunted away from non-vital organs, and a slight decrease in cerebral perfusion leads to the earliest neurological changes, such as restlessness, anxiety, and mild confusion. Because compensatory mechanisms are actively working, the blood pressure remains relatively normal at this stage.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the pathophysiology of the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock.
The body activates the sympathetic nervous system to maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion despite fluid volume loss.
Understanding the body's initial physiological response helps distinguish early adaptive mechanisms from late decompensatory failure.
2
Evaluate each clinical manifestation to determine if it represents an early adaptation or a late failure.
Tachycardia, tachypnea, and subtle neurological changes (restlessness) are early compensatory mechanisms. Profound hypotension and respiratory acidosis represent late decompensation.
Accurate clinical judgment requires distinguishing the timeline of shock progression to prioritize life-saving interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

During the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock, sympathetic nervous system activation maintains blood pressure while causing tachycardia, tachypnea, and peripheral vasoconstriction. Restlessness is typically the earliest sign due to slightly decreased cerebral perfusion.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1664Soru →

Two hours following a percutaneous liver biopsy, a client suddenly becomes restless and anxious. The nurse assesses the client and obtains the following vital signs: blood pressure 104/84104/84 mm Hg, heart rate 118118 beats per minute, and respiratory rate 2222 breaths per minute. The client is currently resting on their right side. What is the priority nursing action to reduce the risk of physiological decompensation?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Activate the rapid response team and prepare to initiate an intravenous fluid bolus.

Cevap

Activate the rapid response team and prepare to initiate an intravenous fluid bolus.
The client is exhibiting a narrowing pulse pressure, tachycardia, and restlessness, which are early physiological indicators of hemorrhagic shock—a major risk following a liver biopsy. Activating the rapid response team and preparing for intravenous fluid resuscitation are the absolute priority interventions to stabilize the client's rapidly deteriorating hemodynamic status.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and clinical presentation in the context of the recent invasive procedure.
The client has a narrow pulse pressure (104−84=20104 - 84 = 20 mm Hg), tachycardia (118118 beats per minute), and new-onset restlessness two hours after a highly vascular procedure.
A percutaneous liver biopsy carries a significant risk of internal hemorrhage. Recognizing subtle trends in vital signs is essential for early detection.
2
Synthesize the assessment data to determine the underlying physiological complication.
The combination of restlessness (early cerebral hypoxia), tachycardia (cardiac compensation), and a narrowing pulse pressure indicates the early stages of hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock.
As circulating blood volume decreases, the heart rate increases to maintain cardiac output, while systemic vasoconstriction raises the diastolic pressure. This narrows the pulse pressure before a significant drop in systolic blood pressure occurs.
3
Select the priority nursing intervention that directly addresses the life-threatening complication.
The immediate action is to activate emergency protocols and prepare for intravenous fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume.
Hemorrhagic shock is a medical emergency. The right lateral position must be maintained for local hemostasis, and immediate volume replacement is necessary to prevent profound organ failure.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition and management of physiological deterioration and hemorrhagic shock following an invasive procedure.
Soru 1665Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a large-volume cleansing enema to a client who is experiencing severe constipation. In what order should the nurse perform the following procedural steps? (Arrange from first to last.)

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is: assist the client into the left lateral Sims' position, lubricate the tip of the rectal tube, insert the tube into the rectum, raise the enema container to the proper height, and release the clamp.
The correct sequence aligns with standard clinical practice guidelines for safely administering a large-volume enema. The nurse must first ensure the client is in the proper anatomical position (left lateral Sims) to facilitate gravity flow. Next, the equipment must be prepared by lubricating the tube tip to prevent trauma. The tube is then safely inserted into the rectum. Once inserted, the container is raised to the correct height (12 to 18 inches) to control hydrostatic pressure, and finally, the clamp is released to instill the fluid.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assist the client into the left lateral Sims' position.
The client is optimally positioned for the procedure.
This position allows the solution to flow downward by gravity along the natural curve of the sigmoid and descending colon, improving fluid retention and clinical results.
2
Apply water-soluble lubricant to the distal tip of the rectal tube.
The tube is ready for safe insertion.
Lubrication significantly reduces friction, preventing painful irritation or mucosal injury to the anus and rectum during the insertion process.
3
Insert the tube gently 3 to 4 inches into the rectum, angling toward the umbilicus.
The tube successfully bypasses the anal sphincters and rests safely in the rectum.
The specified depth and angle follow normal anatomical contours, minimizing the risk of bowel perforation while ensuring the solution effectively reaches the colon.
4
Raise the enema container 12 to 18 inches above the level of the anus.
The proper hydrostatic pressure of the solution is established.
Appropriate elevation ensures a steady, safe flow rate. Holding the bag too high causes rapid instillation, which can lead to painful cramping and an inability to retain the fluid.
5
Release the clamp on the tubing to begin the flow of the solution.
The enema solution instills directly into the lower bowel.
With the patient correctly positioned, the tube safely placed, and the bag height established, the actual fluid administration can safely commence.

Anahtar Kavram

Procedural Sequence for Enema Administration
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1666Soru →

A client admitted with cardiogenic shock requires hemodynamic support. The healthcare provider orders an intravenous infusion of dopamine at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client's admission weight is 176 lbs176 \text{ lbs}. The pharmacy dispenses a premixed bag containing 400 mg400 \text{ mg} of dopamine in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride. At how many mL/hr\text{mL/hr} should the nurse program the infusion pump? (Record answer as a whole number.)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 15

Cevap

15
To find the correct infusion rate, first convert the client's weight to kilograms (176÷2.2=80 kg176 \div 2.2 = 80 \text{ kg}). Calculate the dose per minute: 80 kg×5 mcg=400 mcg/min80 \text{ kg} \times 5 \text{ mcg} = 400 \text{ mcg/min}. Convert to an hourly dose: 400 mcg/min×60 min=24,000 mcg/hr400 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min} = 24,000 \text{ mcg/hr}. Find the concentration of the IV bag: 400 mg400 \text{ mg} is 400,000 mcg400,000 \text{ mcg}; 400,000 mcg÷250 mL=1,600 mcg/mL400,000 \text{ mcg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 1,600 \text{ mcg/mL}. Finally, divide the hourly dose by the concentration to determine the pump rate: 24,000 mcg÷1,600 mcg/mL=15 mL/hr24,000 \text{ mcg} \div 1,600 \text{ mcg/mL} = 15 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
176 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=80 kg176 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 \text{ lbs/kg} = 80 \text{ kg}
The prescribed dose is weight-based in kg, so the weight must be converted first.
2
Calculate the total dose required per minute.
5 mcg/kg/min×80 kg=400 mcg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 80 \text{ kg} = 400 \text{ mcg/min}
This establishes the exact amount of medication the client needs every minute.
3
Convert the minute dose to an hourly dose.
400 mcg/min×60 min/hr=24,000 mcg/hr400 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 24,000 \text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr, so the dose must be expressed per hour.
4
Determine the concentration of the available medication in mcg/mL.
400 mg=400,000 mcg400 \text{ mg} = 400,000 \text{ mcg}. Then, 400,000 mcg÷250 mL=1,600 mcg/mL400,000 \text{ mcg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 1,600 \text{ mcg/mL}
The dose is in mcg, so the medication concentration must also be in mcg to calculate the volume.
5
Calculate the final infusion rate in mL/hr.
24,000 mcg/hr÷1,600 mcg/mL=15 mL/hr24,000 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 1,600 \text{ mcg/mL} = 15 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the hourly dose by the concentration yields the volume needed per hour.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based continuous intravenous infusion calculations (mcg/kg/min to mL/hr)
Soru 1667Soru →

An adult client is brought to the emergency department following a suspected overdose of a narcotic analgesic. The client is difficult to arouse, with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute and shallow respirations. Based on these clinical findings, which acid-base imbalance should the nurse anticipate?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Respiratory acidosis

Cevap

The correct answer is respiratory acidosis.
The correct answer is respiratory acidosis. A narcotic overdose depresses the central nervous system and the brain's respiratory center. This leads to a significantly decreased respiratory rate (hypoventilation) and shallow breathing. When the lungs do not effectively exhale, carbon dioxide accumulates in the bloodstream. Because carbon dioxide functions as an acid in the body, this retention directly lowers the blood pH, resulting in respiratory acidosis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's presentation.
The client has a suspected narcotic overdose, lethargy, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute with shallow respirations.
Identifying the primary physiological problem is necessary to anticipate complications.
2
Determine the effect of the physiological problem on gas exchange.
A slow, shallow respiratory rate indicates severe hypoventilation.
Hypoventilation determines how carbon dioxide is managed by the respiratory system.
3
Correlate the gas exchange alteration with the resulting acid-base imbalance.
Hypoventilation leads to the retention of carbon dioxide (hypercapnia), which lowers blood pH, causing respiratory acidosis.
Carbon dioxide acts as an acid in the body; its retention directly causes a respiratory-driven acidic state.

Anahtar Kavram

Acid-Base Imbalances: Hypoventilation and Respiratory Acidosis
Soru 1668Soru →

A client is receiving care on the surgical unit 48 hours after undergoing a right below-the-knee amputation. Which positioning strategy should the nurse implement to prevent the most common musculoskeletal complication associated with this recovery phase?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes every 3 to 4 hours.

Cevap

The nurse should assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes every 3 to 4 hours to stretch the hip flexors and prevent contractures.
After 24 hours following a lower extremity amputation, preventing flexion contractures becomes a primary nursing priority. Assisting the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes several times a day fully extends the hip joint. This stretching of the flexor muscles is essential to maintain full range of motion, which is strictly required for successful ambulation with a prosthesis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the timeframe and procedure in the clinical scenario.
The client is 48 hours post-operative from a right below-the-knee amputation.
Timing is critical, as positioning guidelines change significantly after the first 24 hours of recovery.
2
Recall the major musculoskeletal complications associated with this specific timeframe.
Flexion contractures of the hip and knee are the most common and debilitating complications that interfere with future prosthetic use.
Prolonged flexion of joints above the amputation site leads to permanent muscle shortening.
3
Evaluate the positioning options against the primary goal of contracture prevention.
Prone positioning extends the hip joint, whereas elevating the limb, sitting in semi-Fowler's, or placing a roll under the knee all promote joint flexion.
Joint extension is necessary to counteract the tendency of muscles to contract when left in a flexed position.

Anahtar Kavram

Prevention of flexion contractures following lower extremity amputation
Soru 1669Soru →

A nurse is developing a plan of care for an older adult client who is 12 hours postoperative following a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach). Which of the following nursing actions will effectively reduce the client's risk for post-surgical complications? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintain the right leg in an abducted position using a specialty wedge pillow.; Monitor the surgical site drain output and ensure the device maintains continuous closed suction.; Administer the prescribed prophylactic subcutaneous enoxaparin at the scheduled time.

Cevap

The correct actions include maintaining the leg in an abducted position, monitoring the surgical site drain for continuous suction, and administering prophylactic subcutaneous anticoagulants.
Maintaining leg abduction with a specialty pillow prevents internal rotation and adduction, which are the primary causes of posterior hip prosthesis dislocation. Monitoring surgical drains ensures early detection of postoperative hemorrhage and prevents hematoma formation that could compromise wound healing. Administering prophylactic anticoagulants reduces the high risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism commonly associated with major lower extremity orthopedic surgery.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific risk factors.
The client had a total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach), which carries high risks for prosthesis dislocation, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), hemorrhage, and altered mental status related to hypoxia or infection.
Understanding the specific postoperative risks dictates which preventive measures must be included in the care plan.
2
Evaluate each intervention for its impact on mitigating postoperative risks.
Leg abduction, drain monitoring, and anticoagulant administration directly prevent dislocation, hematoma, and DVT.
These interventions are evidence-based practices that actively reduce physiological risk.
3
Identify contraindicated actions based on client positioning, delegation rules, and lifespan considerations.
High-Fowler's position causes dangerous hip flexion. UAP delegation for assessments is unsafe. Dismissing confusion as normal ignores potential life-threatening complications.
Eliminating actions that introduce new risks is a core component of the reduction of risk potential.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative Risk Reduction and Positioning (Total Hip Arthroplasty)
Soru 1670Soru →

A family member brings a client with a history of congestive heart failure to the urgent care clinic. The family reports the client accidentally took a double dose of their prescribed loop diuretic over the last three days. The client now reports profound weakness, dizziness when standing, and severe muscle cramps in the lower extremities. The clinical assessment reveals a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute with shallow effort. The arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis yields the following results:

* pH: 7.52
* PaCO2: 49 mm Hg
* HCO3-: 33 mEq/L
* PaO2: 88 mm Hg

Which of the following represents the most accurate clinical interpretation of this client's condition?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis resulting from excessive diuretic use.

Cevap

The most accurate interpretation is that the client is experiencing partially compensated metabolic alkalosis resulting from excessive diuretic use.
The arterial blood gas (ABG) results clearly indicate a state of partially compensated metabolic alkalosis. The elevated pH (7.52) signifies alkalosis, and the elevated bicarbonate (HCO3- at 33 mEq/L) confirms a metabolic origin. This perfectly correlates with the client's history of loop diuretic overdose, which leads to the excessive renal loss of hydrogen, chloride, and potassium ions. The elevated PaCO2 (49 mm Hg) and the client's shallow respiratory rate (10 breaths/min) demonstrate the respiratory system's attempt to compensate by retaining carbon dioxide (an acid) to lower the pH. The compensation is considered 'partial' because the pH remains outside the normal physiological range (7.35-7.45).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the pH value to determine the primary acid-base disturbance.
The pH is 7.52, which is greater than the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating alkalosis.
Establishing whether the client is in a state of acidosis or alkalosis is the first step in ABG interpretation.
2
Evaluate the PaCO2 and HCO3- values to identify the source of the alkalosis.
The HCO3- is elevated at 33 mEq/L (normal: 22-26 mEq/L), which aligns with the alkaline pH. The PaCO2 is also elevated at 49 mm Hg (normal: 35-45 mm Hg), which would cause acidosis.
Matching the abnormal value to the pH determines whether the primary disturbance is metabolic (HCO3-) or respiratory (PaCO2).
3
Determine the state of compensation.
The respiratory system is hypoventilating (retaining CO2, as seen by a PaCO2 of 49 mm Hg and a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min) to counteract the metabolic alkalosis. Because the pH (7.52) has not yet returned to the normal range, the compensation is partial.
An abnormal value opposite to the primary disturbance indicates compensation. If the pH is still abnormal, compensation is partial; if the pH is normal, compensation is full.
4
Correlate the ABG findings with the client's clinical presentation.
Excessive loop diuretic use causes significant fluid loss and renal excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions, leading to hypovolemia, hypokalemia (muscle cramps), and contraction alkalosis. The shallow respirations are a compensatory mechanism.
Connecting laboratory data to the client's history and symptoms confirms the physiological process.

Anahtar Kavram

Interpretation of arterial blood gases and physiological compensation mechanisms in the setting of diuretic-induced metabolic alkalosis.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1671Soru →

A 68-year-old client is admitted with a small bowel obstruction and has been receiving continuous nasogastric (NG) tube wall suctioning for the past 48 hours. The nurse notes the client has become increasingly irritable, with a respiratory rate of 11 breaths/min and shallow chest expansion. Arterial blood gas (ABG) results are: pH 7.54, PaCO2 49 mm Hg, HCO3- 35 mEq/L, and PaO2 85 mm Hg. Based on these findings, which action is the priority for the nurse to implement to reduce the risk of an impending complication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) and evaluate the client for a positive Chvostek's sign.

Cevap

The correct priority action is to obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) and evaluate the client for a positive Chvostek's sign.
The client is experiencing partially compensated metabolic alkalosis (pH > 7.45, elevated HCO3-, and elevated PaCO2 as the lungs hypoventilate to retain acid). This is a direct complication of prolonged NG tube suctioning, which severely depletes gastric acid. Severe metabolic alkalosis causes extracellular potassium to shift into cells (resulting in hypokalemia) and increases calcium binding to albumin (resulting in symptomatic hypocalcemia). The nurse must prioritize assessing for these life-threatening electrolyte imbalances by obtaining an ECG (to detect hypokalemia-induced arrhythmias) and checking for Chvostek's sign (facial nerve hyperirritability indicating hypocalcemia).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the ABG results to determine the primary acid-base imbalance.
A pH of 7.54 indicates alkalemia; an HCO3- of 35 mEq/L indicates a metabolic origin.
Establishing the primary physiological disruption is the first step in clinical judgment.
2
Identify the compensatory mechanism in progress.
The elevated PaCO2 of 49 mm Hg and a respiratory rate of 11 breaths/min indicate respiratory compensation via acid (CO2) retention.
Recognizing compensation prevents the nurse from inappropriately intervening to 'fix' a necessary physiological response.
3
Connect the client's medical treatment to the physiological state.
Continuous NG tube suctioning removes gastric hydrochloric acid, which directly causes the metabolic alkalosis.
Understanding the etiology helps anticipate the specific systemic complications that will follow.
4
Anticipate the downstream physiological complications of this specific imbalance.
Severe metabolic alkalosis causes extracellular potassium to shift into cells (hypokalemia) and increases calcium binding to albumin (hypocalcemia).
These electrolyte shifts are the primary mechanisms that cause immediate life-threatening events.
5
Select the nursing action that directly assesses or mitigates these high-risk complications.
Obtaining an ECG checks for hypokalemia-induced arrhythmias, and testing for Chvostek's sign checks for hypocalcemia-induced tetany.
This directly reduces the risk of sudden cardiac or neuromuscular decompensation.

Anahtar Kavram

Identifying the life-threatening systemic complications (hypokalemia and hypocalcemia) of metabolic alkalosis resulting from excessive gastric acid loss.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1672Soru →

A registered nurse is managing the care of a client with severe Crohn's disease who is receiving continuous Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) and a separate 20% intravenous fat emulsion (IVFE) via a multi-lumen central venous catheter. Which of the following interventions must the nurse implement to ensure the safe administration and monitoring of these therapies? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Monitor the client's capillary blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours throughout the infusion.; Hang an infusion of 10% dextrose in water (D10W) at the prescribed TPN rate if the current TPN bag empties before a replacement is available.; Replace the administration sets and tubing for both the TPN and the intravenous fat emulsion every 24 hours.

Cevap

The correct interventions include monitoring blood glucose every 4 to 6 hours, hanging a D10W infusion if the TPN runs out, and replacing the administration sets every 24 hours.
Safe management of parenteral nutrition requires proactive nursing interventions to prevent metabolic, infectious, and mechanical complications. Routine capillary blood glucose monitoring every 4 to 6 hours is essential to detect TPN-induced hyperglycemia. If the primary TPN supply is interrupted, immediately hanging a 10% dextrose in water (D10W) solution at the prescribed rate prevents severe rebound hypoglycemia. Additionally, because intravenous lipid emulsions foster rapid bacterial and fungal growth, replacing all involved administration tubing every 24 hours is a critical, evidence-based infection control mandate.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the requirement for blood glucose monitoring during continuous TPN therapy.
Identify that TPN solutions have a high dextrose content, necessitating frequent glucose checks (every 4-6 hours) to prevent and appropriately manage hyperglycemia.
Maintaining euglycemia is critical for clients on parenteral nutrition to prevent complications such as osmotic diuresis, delayed wound healing, and infection.
2
Determine the appropriate clinical action if a TPN infusion is unexpectedly interrupted or delayed.
Recognize that abruptly stopping TPN causes profound rebound hypoglycemia. A D10W infusion must be initiated at the exact same rate to maintain blood glucose levels until the new TPN bag is prepared.
The pancreas continuously secretes high levels of endogenous insulin in response to the concentrated TPN; abrupt cessation of the glucose source while insulin levels remain high causes a rapid, dangerous drop in blood glucose.
3
Assess the strict infection control standards required for lipid emulsion administration.
Identify that any intravenous tubing used to administer lipid emulsions (IVFE) must be changed every 24 hours.
Lipids provide a nutrient-rich medium for microbial growth, significantly increasing the risk of central line-associated bloodstream infections if tubing is left in place longer than 24 hours.
4
Evaluate the distractors regarding inline filters, flow rate adjustments, and central line compatibility.
Recognize that lipids require a 1.2-micron filter (not a 0.22-micron filter), TPN infusion rates should never be increased to 'catch up', and the designated TPN lumen must remain exclusively dedicated.
These contraindicated actions compromise patient safety by increasing the risk of mechanical occlusion, severe metabolic derangements, and life-threatening precipitate formation in the central line.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) and lipids requires strict adherence to metabolic monitoring, infection control protocols, and intravenous compatibility guidelines to prevent life-threatening clinical complications.
Soru 1673Soru →

A charge nurse is conducting clinical rounds on a medical-surgical unit and reviewing the status of four clients. Which client assessment finding indicates a life-threatening complication that requires the most urgent intervention?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Left-sided thoracentesis 1 hour ago; exhibits a heart rate of 124 beats per minute with the trachea shifted to the right.

Cevap

The client who had a thoracentesis and now exhibits tachycardia with a tracheal shift requires immediate intervention.
Following a thoracentesis, the lung or visceral pleura may be inadvertently punctured, allowing air to enter the pleural space with each breath but not escape. This creates a tension pneumothorax. The trapped air rapidly increases intrathoracic pressure, collapsing the lung and pushing the mediastinum (including the trachea) toward the unaffected right side. Combined with tachycardia (a compensatory response to decreased venous return and cardiac output), this represents a severe cardiovascular and respiratory emergency requiring immediate physician notification for chest tube insertion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the post-thoracentesis client.
Tachycardia and tracheal deviation away from the affected side are identified as classic signs of a tension pneumothorax.
Air trapping in the pleural space increases intrathoracic pressure, pushing the mediastinum and compressing the heart, which is a life-threatening emergency.
2
Evaluate the post-lumbar puncture client.
Lying flat and supine is identified as the correct standard of care.
Remaining flat for 4 to 8 hours prevents cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage and drastically reduces the risk of a spinal headache.
3
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) for the client with COPD.
The ABG shows a normal pH with elevated CO2 and elevated HCO3.
This indicates fully compensated respiratory acidosis, which is the expected chronic baseline for advanced COPD, not an acute crisis.
4
Review the physical assessment sequence.
Auscultating before palpation is identified as correct.
Palpating the abdomen first can artificially stimulate bowel sounds, so auscultation must always come first.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing signs of a tension pneumothorax as a critical post-procedure complication requiring immediate intervention.

Alternatif Yöntem

When prioritizing clients, always apply the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation). A tracheal shift and tachycardia directly threaten Airway and Circulation, making it the undeniable priority over expected positioning, chronic baselines, and standard assessment techniques.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1674Soru →

A nurse enters the room of a client receiving intravenous fluids via a central venous catheter (CVC). The nurse discovers that the intravenous tubing has disconnected from the CVC hub. The client is suddenly experiencing severe dyspnea, tachycardia, and a feeling of impending doom. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct order of priority to manage this complication.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first clamp the catheter, then position the client in left lateral Trendelenburg, administer high-flow oxygen, notify the rapid response team, and finally assess vital signs.
The client's sudden onset of dyspnea, tachycardia, and feeling of impending doom immediately following a CVC disconnection strongly indicates an air embolism. The priority is to mitigate physiological risk by preventing further air entry (clamping), trapping the existing air to prevent fatal outflow obstruction (left lateral Trendelenburg), treating hypoxia and shrinking the embolus (high-flow oxygen), securing advanced help (rapid response team), and evaluating the client's status (vital signs).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Clamp the central venous catheter.
The entry of additional air into the venous circulation is halted.
Immediate mechanical occlusion of the open hub is required to stop the underlying cause of the complication.
2
Place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.
The air embolus is trapped in the apex of the right atrium.
This specific anatomical positioning prevents the air from migrating into the right ventricle and pulmonary artery, which would cause right ventricular outflow obstruction.
3
Administer high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
Tissue oxygenation is improved and nitrogen absorption is promoted.
Applying 100% oxygen washes out nitrogen from the blood, accelerating the resorption of the air embolus and treating acute hypoxemia.
4
Notify the rapid response team and healthcare provider.
Advanced medical support is activated.
The client requires critical care interventions, potentially including hyperbaric oxygen therapy or vasopressors, which require advanced medical providers.
5
Assess the client's vital signs and oxygen saturation.
Baseline hemodynamic and respiratory parameters are established.
Continuous monitoring is necessary to evaluate the effectiveness of interventions and provide essential data to the rapid response team upon their arrival.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of a central venous catheter-related air embolism requires immediate source control, specific client positioning (Durant's maneuver) to trap the air, oxygenation, and rapid escalation of care.
Soru 1675Soru →

A preceptor is evaluating a newly licensed nurse who is caring for a 64-year-old client. The client is mechanically ventilated for severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and is in the early stages of septic shock. Which actions by the newly licensed nurse require the preceptor to intervene immediately to reduce the client's risk of life-threatening complications? (Select all that apply)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Interpreting an arterial blood gas result of pHpH 7.507.50, PaCO2PaCO_2 29 mm Hg29\text{ mm Hg}, and HCO3−HCO_3^- 22 mEq/L22\text{ mEq/L} as metabolic alkalosis and independently decreasing the intravenous fluid rate; Documenting a blood pressure trend from 118/76 mm Hg118/76\text{ mm Hg} to 102/82 mm Hg102/82\text{ mm Hg} over one hour as a sign of hemodynamic stabilization and deferring provider notification; Placing the client in a strict supine position at a 0∘0^\circ angle for 45 minutes45\text{ minutes} to facilitate a comprehensive physical assessment and complete linen change

Cevap

The preceptor must intervene when the newly licensed nurse misinterprets the ABG as metabolic alkalosis, documents a narrowing pulse pressure as hemodynamic stabilization, and places the mechanically ventilated client in a strict supine position.
The correct selections represent dangerous clinical errors that require immediate preceptor intervention. First, the ABG reveals uncompensated respiratory alkalosis (elevated pHpH, decreased PaCO2PaCO_2), not metabolic alkalosis. Decreasing intravenous fluids in a septic client based on this error could precipitate profound hypovolemia. Second, a blood pressure trend from 118/76 mm Hg118/76\text{ mm Hg} to 102/82 mm Hg102/82\text{ mm Hg} represents a narrowing pulse pressure (from 4242 to 2020). This is a subtle, early sign of compensatory shock, not hemodynamic stabilization. Finally, placing a mechanically ventilated client with ARDS flat (0∘0^\circ) for an extended period severely increases the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia and immediate hypoxemia.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the ABG results (pHpH 7.507.50, PaCO2PaCO_2 2929, HCO3−HCO_3^- 2222).
The high pHpH indicates alkalosis, and the low PaCO2PaCO_2 identifies it as respiratory, not metabolic.
Accurate ABG interpretation is critical; decreasing fluids in sepsis based on a misinterpretation can precipitate profound hypovolemia.
2
Calculate the pulse pressure for the blood pressure trend (118/76118/76 vs 102/82102/82).
The pulse pressure narrowed from 42 mm Hg42\text{ mm Hg} to 20 mm Hg20\text{ mm Hg}.
A narrowing pulse pressure is a subtle but critical early indicator of compensatory shock, signaling a decreasing stroke volume.
3
Evaluate the safety of placing a mechanically ventilated client at a 0∘0^\circ angle.
Strict supine positioning is contraindicated.
It significantly increases the risk of aspiration and ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), especially in clients with ARDS.
4
Review the remaining actions (cultures before antibiotics, pausing tube feeds before repositioning, and PRN suctioning).
These are all evidence-based, correct nursing actions.
The preceptor does not need to intervene when safe and appropriate care is provided.

Anahtar Kavram

Identifying subtle indicators of physiological decompensation and correcting unsafe clinical actions to prevent life-threatening complications.
Soru 1676Soru →

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has generalized weakness and right-sided hemiparesis from the bed to a wheelchair. The client is able to bear partial weight. Which action should the nurse take to ensure a safe transfer?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Position the wheelchair on the client's left side at a 45-degree angle to the bed.

Cevap

Position the wheelchair on the client's left side at a 45-degree angle to the bed.
When transferring a client with unilateral weakness (hemiparesis), the wheelchair should always be placed on the client's unaffected or stronger side (in this case, the left side). This allows the client to pivot on the strong leg, securely grasp the far armrest of the wheelchair with their strong arm, and safely guide themselves into the seat.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the client's mobility status.
The client has right-sided hemiparesis (weakness) but can bear partial weight.
Determining the strong and weak sides is essential for planning a safe transfer.
2
Determine the optimal placement for the wheelchair.
The wheelchair is placed on the client's left (unaffected) side.
Transfers should always move toward the client's stronger side to maximize their ability to assist and maintain balance.
3
Execute the transfer using proper body mechanics.
The client pivots on the strong leg while the nurse provides support with a wide base of support.
Proper biomechanics prevent falls for the client and musculoskeletal injuries for the nurse.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Client Transfers and Mobility
Soru 1677Soru →

A nurse enters the room of a client receiving continuous intravenous fluids via a central venous catheter (CVC). The nurse discovers that the IV tubing has disconnected from the catheter hub, leaving it open to the air. The client suddenly becomes tachypneic, diaphoretic, and reports severe shortness of breath. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority order to mitigate the risk of further complications.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence of actions for a suspected central line air embolism is: Clamp the catheter, position the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position, administer high-flow oxygen, notify the rapid response team, and finally obtain vital signs with cardiac monitoring.
In the event of a CVC disconnection and a suspected air embolism, the nurse must act immediately to mitigate the risk of a fatal pulmonary occlusion. Clamping the catheter addresses the root cause instantly by stopping the air leak. The left lateral Trendelenburg position anatomically traps the air in the right ventricle, preventing it from entering the pulmonary artery. Oxygen therapy treats ischemia and accelerates the resorption of the air bubble. Once these immediate life-saving physical actions are complete, calling for advanced medical help and assessing hemodynamics are the next priorities.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Clamp the open central venous catheter.
Stops air from entering the circulatory system.
Immediate occlusion of the disconnected hub is the most critical first step to prevent a fatal volume of air from entraining.
2
Place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.
Traps the air bubble in the right side of the heart.
This specific anatomical position (Durant's maneuver) prevents the air from migrating into the pulmonary arterial circulation, which would cause obstructive shock.
3
Administer 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
Relieves hypoxia and reduces embolus size.
High-flow oxygen creates a diffusion gradient that helps reabsorb the nitrogen-rich air bubble while treating the client's shortness of breath.
4
Notify the rapid response team and the healthcare provider.
Escalates care for definitive medical management.
Once immediate physical stabilizing interventions are in place, emergency medical assistance is required for further treatment.
5
Obtain vital signs and initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
Establishes a hemodynamic baseline and detects arrhythmias.
Continuous assessment is necessary while waiting for the response team to detect right ventricular strain or impending cardiac arrest.

Anahtar Kavram

Emergency Management of a Central Venous Catheter Air Embolism
Soru 1678Soru →

A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis is prescribed a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. The client's current weight is 198 lb198\text{ lb}. The provider's prescription requires an initial infusion rate of 18 units/kg/hr18\text{ units/kg/hr}. The available medication is a 250 mL250\text{ mL} intravenous bag containing 25,000 units25,000\text{ units} of heparin sodium. At what rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} should the nurse program the infusion pump? Record your answer using one decimal place.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 16.2

Cevap

16.2
To determine the correct infusion pump rate, the nurse must accurately convert the client's weight into kilograms, calculate the total hourly unit requirement based on that weight, and divide by the medication's concentration (100 units/mL100\text{ units/mL}) to find the correct volume per hour.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert weight from pounds to kilograms.
198÷2.2=90 kg198 \div 2.2 = 90\text{ kg}
The medication protocol requires a weight-based dose in kilograms, but the client's weight is provided in pounds.
2
Calculate the hourly heparin dose.
90 kg×18 units/kg/hr=1,620 units/hr90\text{ kg} \times 18\text{ units/kg/hr} = 1,620\text{ units/hr}
Multiplying the client's weight by the ordered unit rate per kilogram determines the total units needed every hour.
3
Calculate the volume needed per hour based on the supplied concentration.
1,620 units/hr÷(25,000 units/250 mL)=16.2 mL/hr1,620\text{ units/hr} \div (25,000\text{ units} / 250\text{ mL}) = 16.2\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required units per hour by the concentration of the IV bag (100 units/mL100\text{ units/mL}) yields the correct pump setting.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based continuous intravenous infusion calculations
Soru 1679Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with a T4 spinal cord injury. The client suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache, and the nurse notes profuse diaphoresis above the level of the injury. The client's blood pressure is 210/110 mm Hg. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct priority sequence is to first elevate the head of the bed, then loosen constrictive clothing, followed by assessing the urinary system, and finally administering a prescribed antihypertensive medication if needed.
For a client experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, the immediate priority is to prevent a cerebrovascular accident by utilizing gravity to lower the blood pressure. Therefore, elevating the head of the bed is always the first action. Following this, the nurse must systematically search for and remove noxious stimuli, beginning with easily correctable external factors like tight clothing, and then assessing for the most common internal trigger, which is bladder distention. Pharmacological interventions are reserved as a last resort if independent nursing measures do not resolve the crisis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elevate the head of the bed to a high Fowler's position.
Induces orthostatic hypotension to lower the blood pressure.
The most immediate life-threatening risk is a stroke from severe hypertension; sitting the client up is the fastest way to mechanically lower blood pressure.
2
Loosen any constrictive clothing.
Removes potential external triggers.
Autonomic dysreflexia is triggered by noxious stimuli below the level of injury. Removing external pressure is a rapid, non-invasive step.
3
Assess the urinary system for bladder distention.
Identifies and eliminates the primary internal trigger.
A distended bladder or kinked catheter is the most frequent cause of this condition and must be addressed immediately after stabilizing the blood pressure.
4
Administer a prescribed antihypertensive medication.
Lowers blood pressure pharmacologically.
Medications are used when the noxious stimulus cannot be found or removed, or if the blood pressure remains critically high despite nursing interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of care for autonomic dysreflexia
Soru 1680Soru →

A client with symptomatic anemia is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) through a peripheral intravenous catheter. Fifteen minutes after the transfusion begins, the client reports acute lower back pain, severe chills, and dyspnea. The nurse observes that the urine in the urinary drainage bag has suddenly turned dark reddish-brown. The nurse immediately stops the blood transfusion. Which of the following is the most critical next action for the nurse to take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Disconnect the blood administration set at the IV catheter hub and infuse 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride using entirely new tubing.

Cevap

Disconnect the blood administration set at the IV catheter hub and infuse 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride using entirely new tubing.
The client is experiencing an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, characterized by flank pain (kidney ischemia from hemoglobinuria) and dark urine. After immediately stopping the transfusion, the absolute priority is to maintain venous access and preserve renal perfusion to prevent acute kidney injury. This is achieved by disconnecting the blood tubing entirely at the catheter hub and initiating a rapid infusion of normal saline using completely new tubing. This ensures that the remaining incompatible blood in the original IV line is not pushed into the client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's symptom cluster.
Lower back pain, chills, dyspnea, and dark reddish-brown urine (hemoglobinuria) occurring within 15 minutes of a blood transfusion strongly indicate an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (ABO incompatibility).
Accurate identification of the specific type of transfusion reaction dictates the emergency medical management.
2
Determine the immediate physiological priority.
In an acute hemolytic reaction, destroyed red blood cells release massive amounts of hemoglobin, which can obstruct renal tubules and cause acute kidney injury.
Maintaining robust renal perfusion with intravenous fluids is critical to flush out the free hemoglobin and support blood pressure.
3
Select the safest method to administer the required fluids.
The nurse must completely disconnect the blood tubing from the client and attach a brand new IV line primed with normal saline.
If the existing Y-tubing is flushed, the 20 to 30 mL of incompatible blood sitting in the distal tubing will be forced into the client's bloodstream, worsening the systemic reaction.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
ÖncekiSayfa 84 / 98Sonraki
Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 84 | Examkin