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Soru 1661Soru →

Match the major global industrial regions in List-I with their primary specialized industrial activities in List-II, and select the correct matching pair combinations.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

Nagoya Region
Kuznetsk Basin
Lorraine Region
Silicon Glen

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

Nagoya Region matches with Automobiles and Aerospace Engineering; Kuznetsk Basin matches with Coal Mining and Heavy Metallurgy; Lorraine Region matches with Heavy Iron and Steel Production; Silicon Glen matches with Electronics and Semiconductor Manufacturing.
Each global industrial region is paired with its accurate economic manufacturing focus: Nagoya Region is famous for automobiles and aerospace engineering; Kuznetsk Basin is a major coal mining and heavy metallurgical zone in Russia; Lorraine Region in France is historically linked to iron ore extraction and heavy steel mills; and Silicon Glen in Scotland represents a prominent high-tech semiconductor and electronics cluster.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze Nagoya Region's economic specialization
Nagoya is the center of Japan's transport equipment industry, hosting major automotive and aerospace manufacturers.
It forms the core of the Chukyo Industrial Zone.
2
Analyze Kuznetsk Basin's industrial profile
Kuzbass in Southwestern Siberia is defined by extensive coal fields that power heavy steel metallurgy.
Raw material availability established it as a heavy industrial base in Russia.
3
Analyze Lorraine Region's resource and industrial base
Lorraine in northeastern France grew around local iron ore deposits, specializing in heavy steel manufacturing.
Minette iron ore beds laid the foundation for European heavy manufacturing.
4
Analyze Silicon Glen's high-tech specialization
Silicon Glen in Central Scotland emerged as a leading center for microelectronics and semiconductor fabrication.
Post-industrial restructuring shifted its economy toward information technology and hardware assembly.

Anahtar Kavram

Global Industrial Regions and Manufacturing Specializations
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1662Soru →

Which medieval Indian ruler's administration introduced the *Patta* (a title deed specifying land revenue demand) and *Qabuliyat* (a deed of agreement signed by the peasant) to establish direct state contact with the cultivator?

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Cevap: The agrarian administration of Sher Shah Suri

Cevap

The agrarian administration of Sher Shah Suri
Sher Shah Suri reformed land revenue administration by having land surveyed using a standard Jarib (measuring rope/rod). To ensure transparency, the state issued a Patta to the cultivator detailing the area under cultivation and exact tax owed, while the cultivator signed a Qabuliyat accepting the terms.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the core administrative terminology mentioned in the prompt
The terms *Patta* (title deed stating land holding and tax rate) and *Qabuliyat* (deed of acceptance signed by the farmer) refer to bilateral land agreements.
These legal documents were introduced to clearly define crop assessment and prevent arbitrary revenue extractions by intermediaries.
2
Identify the historical ruler who introduced this system
Sher Shah Suri (Suri Empire, 1540–1545) pioneered direct agrarian measurement and documentation prior to Mughal reforms.
His administration insisted on direct state-peasant contractual clarity through Patta and Qabuliyat.

Anahtar Kavram

Sher Shah Suri's Agrarian and Land Revenue System
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1663Soru →

With reference to the Individual Satyagraha launched under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi in October 1940, which of the following statements is correct?

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Cevap: It was launched as a limited, symbolic protest to affirm the right to free speech against Indian involvement in World War II without public consent.

Cevap

The Individual Satyagraha was launched as a limited, symbolic protest to affirm the right to free speech against Indian involvement in World War II without public consent.
The correct response accurately states the primary objective of the Individual Satyagraha (1940). Mahatma Gandhi launched it to assert the right of free speech to preach against war participation, while keeping the movement individual and symbolic to avoid hampering Britain's war efforts violently.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the historical context of late 1940 following the August Offer.
The Congress rejected the August Offer, and Mahatma Gandhi decided to initiate Individual Satyagraha to express opposition to the war effort without launching a full-scale mass civil disobedience movement.
Gandhi wanted to demonstrate that Indian silence was not voluntary compliance, while avoiding creating anarchy during World War II.
2
Verify the leadership sequence and nature of the movement.
Acharya Vinoba Bhave was selected as the 1st Satyagrahi (offered satyagraha at Paunar on October 17, 1940) and Jawaharlal Nehru as the 2nd. The movement was also called the 'Delhi Chalo Movement' because un-arrested satyagrahis marched toward the capital.
Knowing the correct sequence of leaders and the alternative name identifies the misstatements in the remaining options.

Anahtar Kavram

Individual Satyagraha of 1940 (Delhi Chalo Movement)
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1664Soru →

Arrange the following major iron and steel plants in India in order from North to South based on their geographical location.

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Cevap

The correct order from North to South is: Bokaro Steel Plant (Jharkhand), Rourkela Steel Plant (Odisha), Bhilai Steel Plant (Chhattisgarh), and Salem Steel Plant (Tamil Nadu).
Bokaro Steel Plant in Jharkhand is the northernmost (~23.79° N), followed by Rourkela Steel Plant in northern Odisha (~22.25° N), Bhilai Steel Plant in Chhattisgarh (~21.19° N), and Salem Steel Plant in Tamil Nadu, which is the southernmost (~11.66° N).

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1
Identify the geographical latitude of each steel plant location.
Bokaro is at ~23.79° N, Rourkela is at ~22.25° N, Bhilai is at ~21.19° N, and Salem is at ~11.66° N.
Arranging industrial hubs spatially requires identifying their relative latitudinal positions.
2
Sort the centers starting from the highest latitude (northernmost) to the lowest latitude (southernmost).
The correct sequence is Bokaro → Rourkela → Bhilai → Salem.
This establishes the precise North-to-South spatial alignment.

Anahtar Kavram

Geographical spatial arrangement and latitudinal alignment of major industrial centers in India.
Soru 1665Soru →

Arrange the following geographical regions of India in the correct chronological sequence of the withdrawal (retreat) of the South-West Monsoon, starting from the region where withdrawal begins earliest to the region where it completes latest.

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Cevap

The correct chronological order of the retreat of the South-West Monsoon from earliest to latest is: North-Western Rajasthan and Punjab Plains, Indo-Gangetic Plains of Bihar and West Bengal, Coastal Andhra Pradesh, and Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu.
The South-West Monsoon begins its withdrawal from the extreme north-western part of India (Punjab and Rajasthan) in early September. It gradually retreats south-eastward across the Indo-Gangetic Plains (Bengal and Bihar) by mid-October, reaches the central eastern coast (Coastal Andhra Pradesh) by early November, and leaves the southern extremity (Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu) last, by mid-December.

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1
Identify the initiating zone of the South-West Monsoon retreat.
Withdrawal begins in extreme North-West India (North-Western Rajasthan and Punjab Plains) around September 1.
Clear skies and declining temperatures cause the thermal low-pressure trough over northern plains to weaken and shift southward.
2
Trace the southward and eastward progression across northern and eastern plains.
The monsoon leaves the Indo-Gangetic Plains of Bihar and West Bengal by early to mid-October.
The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) continues its southward movement towards the equator.
3
Determine the withdrawal timeline over the eastern peninsular coast.
Monsoon retreats from Coastal Andhra Pradesh by late October/early November.
High pressure establishes over northern India, driving prevailing North-East trade winds across the Bay of Bengal.
4
Identify the final region of complete monsoon withdrawal.
The monsoon completely clears from the Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu by mid-December.
By mid-December, the monsoon trough is fully established over the Southern Hemisphere, completing the monsoon retreat cycle over mainland India.

Anahtar Kavram

Chronological Progression of the Retreating South-West Monsoon
Soru 1666Soru →

Arrange the following 19th-century peasant and tribal uprisings in British India in correct chronological order, from the earliest to the latest:

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Cevap

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Paika Rebellion (1817), Santhal Rebellion (1855–1856), Deccan Riots (1875), and Munda Ulgulan (1899–1900).
The correct sequence begins with the Paika Rebellion of 1817 in Odisha, followed by the Santhal Rebellion (1855–1856) in the Rajmahal Hills, then the Deccan Riots (1875) in Maharashtra, and concludes with the Munda Ulgulan (1899–1900) in Chota Nagpur.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the historical year/period for each uprising listed
Paika Rebellion occurred in 1817; Santhal Rebellion occurred in 1855–1856; Deccan Riots took place in 1875; Munda Ulgulan took place in 1899–1900.
Establishing the precise chronological timeframe of each uprising allows accurate chronological sequencing.
2
Arrange the events in increasing order of their occurrence years
1817 (Paika) → 1855–1856 (Santhal) → 1875 (Deccan Riots) → 1899–1900 (Munda Ulgulan).
This places the revolts strictly in historical sequence from the earliest uprising to the latest.

Anahtar Kavram

Chronological development of major peasant and tribal uprisings against British colonial agrarian policies.
Soru 1667Soru →

With reference to the administrative and constitutional provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms), consider the following statements:

1. It introduced dyarchy at the executive level of the Central Government while granting full provincial autonomy.
2. It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
3. It extended the system of separate communal electorates to include Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Cevap: 2 and 3 only

Cevap

The option containing statements 2 and 3 only is correct.
The option selecting statements 2 and 3 only is correct. The Government of India Act 1919 introduced provincial budgetary independence by separating provincial budgets from the central budget and extended communal electorates to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans. Statement 1 misattributes provincial dyarchy as central dyarchy, which is incorrect.

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1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding executive dyarchy and provincial autonomy.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
The Government of India Act 1919 established dyarchy specifically in the provinces by dividing provincial subjects into 'Reserved' and 'Transferred'. Provincial Autonomy and Dyarchy at the Centre were provisions introduced later under the Government of India Act 1935.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding financial decentralization and budget separation.
Statement 2 is correct.
The 1919 Act devolved financial authority by separating provincial budgets from the central budget, enabling provincial councils to formulate and vote on their own independent budgets.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the expansion of communal electorates.
Statement 3 is correct.
While the Indian Councils Act 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms) introduced separate electorates for Muslims, the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (1919) extended this communal representation principle to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans.

Anahtar Kavram

Key provisions of the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms / Government of India Act 1919
Soru 1668Soru →

Consider the following statements regarding the legislative powers of Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List under Article 249 of the Constitution of India:

1. A resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha under Article 249 empowering Parliament to legislate on a State subject remains in force for a maximum period of one year at a time.
2. When Parliament enacts a law under Article 249, the legislative capacity of the State Legislature over that subject is completely suspended.
3. In case of any inconsistency between a Parliamentary law made under Article 249 and a State law on the same subject, the Parliamentary law prevails so long as it remains in force.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Cevap: 1 and 3 only

Cevap

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, whereas Statement 2 is incorrect.
The option selecting statements 1 and 3 only is correct. Statement 1 is true because Article 249(2) caps the validity of a Rajya Sabha resolution at one year at a time. Statement 3 is true because Article 251 expressly mandates that in case of repugnancy between a Parliamentary law under Article 249 and a State law, the Parliamentary law prevails as long as it remains in force. Statement 2 is false because Article 251 preserves the State Legislature's power to legislate on the same subject.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the tenure of a resolution under Article 249.
Under Article 249(2), a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha declaring a State List subject to be of national interest remains in force for such period, not exceeding one year, as specified therein. It can be renewed repeatedly for one year at a time.
Verify procedural limits governing Parliament's jurisdiction over State subjects in national interest.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the impact on State legislative power under Article 251.
Article 251 explicitly affirms that nothing in Article 249 restricts the power of the State Legislature to make any law on that subject. The State's legislative power is not suspended.
Determine whether Central legislation under Article 249 deprives the State Legislature of its constitutional competency.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding inconsistency between Parliamentary and State laws.
Article 251 specifies that if a law made by a State Legislature is repugnant to a Parliamentary law made under Article 249, the Parliamentary law prevails to the extent of repugnancy so long as it remains in force.
Apply the constitutional supremacy rule governing concurrent operational laws under Article 251.

Anahtar Kavram

Parliamentary Legislation on State List Subjects (Article 249 and Article 251)
Soru 1669Soru →

Regarding the fundamental framework of constitutional remedies and Directive Principles under the Constitution of India, which of the following statements are correct?

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: The Supreme Court can issue writs under Article 32 only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, whereas High Courts under Article 226 can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other ordinary legal purpose.; Article 31C protects laws enacted to implement Directive Principles specified in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) from being declared void on the ground of violating Fundamental Rights under Article 14 and Article 19.

Cevap

The correct statements are that the Supreme Court's writ jurisdiction under Article 32 is limited to Fundamental Rights while High Courts have wider jurisdiction under Article 226, and Article 31C protects laws implementing Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) from challenges under Articles 14 and 19.
The statement comparing writ jurisdictions is correct because Article 32 can be invoked solely for Fundamental Rights violations, whereas Article 226 grants High Courts authority to issue writs for both Fundamental Rights and other legal rights. The statement regarding Article 31C is also correct as it expressly immunizes legislation enacted for distributing material resources (Art 39b) and preventing concentration of wealth (Art 39c) against judicial invalidation under Article 14 (equality) and Article 19 (freedoms).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate writ jurisdiction parameters of Supreme Court versus High Courts
Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right to enforce Part III rights only. Article 226 allows High Courts to issue writs for both Fundamental Rights and any other legal rights.
Constitutional provisions under Article 32 and Article 226 establish different territorial and subject-matter scopes for writ jurisdiction.
2
Examine justiciability of Directive Principles of State Policy
Article 37 mandates that Directive Principles are fundamental in the governance of the country but are explicitly non-justiciable.
Courts cannot issue judicial writs like Mandamus to enforce non-justiciable provisions contained in Part IV.
3
Verify scope of Quo-Warranto and protection under Article 31C
Quo-Warranto applies strictly to public offices, while Article 31C shields specific economic DPSPs under Article 39(b) and 39(c) from Articles 14 and 19.
The 25th Constitutional Amendment introduced Article 31C to prioritize egalitarian economic policies over specified fundamental freedoms.

Anahtar Kavram

Writ Jurisdiction Scope (Art 32 vs 226) and Interrelationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1670Soru →

With reference to the physical geography and relief features of the Kashmir and Northwestern Himalayas, which of the following statements are correct? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The Kashmir Valley is a structural synclinal basin situated between the Great Himalayas and the Pir Panjal Range.; Karewas are fluvio-lacustrine deposits of glacial clay, silt, and moraines that are extensively utilized for Zafran (saffron) cultivation.; The region encompasses both freshwater bodies like Dal and Wular lakes, as well as high-altitude brackish water bodies like Pangong Tso and Tso Moriri.

Cevap

The correct statements are those identifying the Kashmir Valley as a synclinal basin between the Great Himalayas and Pir Panjal Range, defining Karewas as fluvio-lacustrine deposits vital for saffron farming, and noting the co-existence of freshwater lakes like Dal and Wular with high-altitude brackish lakes like Pangong Tso and Tso Moriri.
The physical geography of the Kashmir Himalayas is marked by distinct morphotectonic features: the Kashmir Valley forms a synclinal basin bounded by the Pir Panjal and Great Himalayan ranges; Karewas represent Pleistocene lacustrine and glacial deposits indispensable for saffron farming; and the region contains both low-altitude freshwater lakes (Dal and Wular) and high-altitude endorheic lakes (Pangong Tso and Tso Moriri).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the morphotectonic position of the Kashmir Valley
Confirm that the Kashmir Valley lies structurally between the Pir Panjal Range (Lesser Himalayas) and the Main Himalayan Range (Great Himalayas).
Topographic cross-sections confirm that the valley formed due to tectonic uplifting of the surrounding ranges, creating an intermontane synclinal basin.
2
Evaluate the geological nature and agricultural significance of Karewa formations
Verify that Karewas are lacustrine silt and glacial moraine terraces from the Pleistocene period.
These deposits are unique quaternary landforms of Kashmir essential for growing saffron (Zafran).
3
Examine the spatial arrangement of the North-South Himalayan ranges
Identify that the Zaskar Range is situated north of the Great Himalayas, in the Trans-Himalayan belt.
Placing Zaskar south of Pir Panjal violates the established latitudinal ordering (Outer Himalayas → Lesser Himalayas → Greater Himalayas → Trans-Himalayas).
4
Assess the hydrologic landforms of the Northwestern Himalayas
Confirm that Dal and Wular are freshwater bodies associated with the Jhelum drainage, while Pangong Tso and Tso Moriri are high-elevation saline/brackish lakes in the Trans-Himalayan plateau zone.
Both types of lakes exist within the broader Kashmir and Ladakh Northwestern Himalayan physiographic region.

Anahtar Kavram

Physiographic and Morphotectonic Features of Kashmir Himalayas
Soru 1671Soru →

Match the major Industrial Regions of India in List I with their primary locational drivers and raw material bases in List II, and select the correct matching combination.

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Öğeler

Mumbai-Pune Industrial Region
Chota Nagpur Industrial Region
Coimbatore-Madurai Industrial Region
Brahmaputra Valley Industrial Region

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

The Mumbai-Pune Industrial Region matches with hydroelectric power from the Western Ghats and port access; the Chota Nagpur Industrial Region matches with coal and hematite iron ore spatial coincidence; the Coimbatore-Madurai Industrial Region matches with Pykara Hydel Project power and cotton production; and the Brahmaputra Valley Industrial Region matches with onshore crude oil deposits and tea processing.
Each industrial region is correctly paired with its distinct locational advantage: Mumbai-Pune with Western Ghats hydel power and port facilities, Chota Nagpur with coking coal and hematite mineral proximity, Coimbatore-Madurai with Pykara hydel energy and local cotton, and Brahmaputra Valley with petroleum oilfields and tea processing.

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1
Analyze the locational advantages for the western coastal industrial belt (Mumbai-Pune)
Identify that the region benefited early from hydroelectric installations on the Western Ghats slope and Mumbai port facilities for importing cotton textile machinery.
Heavy power requirements and access to international trade routes drove early industrial growth in Western Maharashtra.
2
Evaluate the mineral and raw material linkages of the Chota Nagpur belt
Confirm direct spatial juxtaposition of coal basins (Damodar valley) and iron ore deposits (Singhbhum belt).
Heavy metallurgical industries aggregate at raw material locations due to the weight-losing nature of iron ore and coal.
3
Examine the growth drivers for South Indian textile clusters (Coimbatore-Madurai)
Identify Pykara Hydel power development as the critical factor that turned Coimbatore into a major textile spinning hub.
Reliable hydel power compensated for the lack of local coal deposits in South India.
4
Determine the primary industrial drivers in Northeast India (Brahmaputra Valley)
Link petroleum extraction at Digboi/Naharkatiya and tea plantation factories as the regional economic pillars.
Mineral oil refining and agro-processing form the traditional industrial core of upper Assam.

Anahtar Kavram

Locational drivers and spatial distribution factors of major Indian industrial regions
Soru 1672Soru →

Which of the following represents the correct chronological sequence of political events and organizations during the rise of early Indian nationalism, from earliest to latest?

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Cevap

The correct chronological order from earliest to latest is: Establishment of the Landholders' Society in Calcutta (1838), Formation of the Madras Native Association (1852), Inaugural session of the Indian National Congress (1885), and Enactment of the Indian Councils Act (1892).
The correct sequence begins with the Landholders' Society established in 1838, followed by the Madras Native Association in 1852, then the inaugural session of the Indian National Congress in 1885, and concludes with the enactment of the Indian Councils Act in 1892.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Determine the founding year of the Landholders' Society
The Landholders' Society (Zamindari Association) was established in Calcutta in 1838.
It was one of the pioneer political organizations in British India, formed in the pre-1857 era.
2
Determine the founding year of the Madras Native Association
The Madras Native Association was established in 1852.
It was created to present regional grievances to the British Parliament prior to the renewal of the East India Company's charter.
3
Identify the year of the first session of the Indian National Congress
The inaugural session of the Indian National Congress took place in December 1885.
This event created a unified national political platform for Indian nationalists.
4
Identify the year of the Indian Councils Act enactment
The Indian Councils Act was passed in 1892.
This legislation introduced indirect elections and expanded legislative functions following early Moderate nationalist petitions.

Anahtar Kavram

Chronological evolution of pre-Congress organizations and early legislative developments in British India
Soru 1673Soru →

The constitutional relationship between Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) has evolved through key judicial pronouncements. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the established constitutional position regarding their harmony and precedence?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of a harmonious balance between Part III and Part IV, and giving absolute primacy to one over the other distorts the basic structure.

Cevap

The correct position is that the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of a harmonious balance between Part III (Fundamental Rights) and Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy), and giving absolute primacy to one over the other distorts the basic structure of the Constitution.
The statement emphasizing a harmonious balance between Part III and Part IV as an essential basic structure feature accurately summarizes the ruling of the Supreme Court in Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980). The Court observed that Part III and Part IV are like two wheels of a chariot, and absolute subordination of one to the other destroys the constitutional scheme.

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1
Analyze the constitutional interplay between Part III and Part IV
Recognize that while Fundamental Rights are justiciable legal guarantees and Directive Principles are fundamental in the governance of the country, neither part was intended to completely destroy the core of the other.
Judicial precedents, particularly Champakam Dorairajan (1951), Kerala Education Bill (1958), Kesavananda Bharati (1973), and Minerva Mills (1980), shaped this doctrine.
2
Evaluate the Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) ruling
The Supreme Court struck down Section 55 and Section 4 of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, which had sought to give primacy to all DPSPs over Articles 14 and 19.
The Court held that the harmony and balance between Part III and Part IV is itself a basic feature of the Constitution.
3
Assess the scope of Writ Jurisdiction (Article 32 vs Article 226)
Article 32 can only be invoked for Fundamental Rights violation, whereas Article 226 permits High Courts to issue writs for Fundamental Rights and ordinary legal/statutory rights.
This confirms that High Courts are not barred from judicial review of DPSP-based enactments, and their scope is wider, not narrower.

Anahtar Kavram

Harmony and Balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy (Minerva Mills Doctrine)
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1674Soru →

Match the socio-religious reform organizations listed under List-I with their respective founding details and leaders listed under List-II.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

Deva Samaj
Prarthana Samaj
Ahmadiyya Movement
Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

Deva Samaj pairs with establishment in Lahore (1887) by Shiv Narayan Agnihotri; Prarthana Samaj pairs with founding in Bombay (1867) by Atmaram Pandurang; Ahmadiyya Movement pairs with initiation in Qadian (1889) by Mirza Ghulam Ahmad; and Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha pairs with formation in Bombay (1851) by Parsi leaders.
Each organization matches strictly with its historical origin: Deva Samaj (1887, Shiv Narayan Agnihotri), Prarthana Samaj (1867, Atmaram Pandurang), Ahmadiyya Movement (1889, Mirza Ghulam Ahmad), and Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha (1851, Parsi reformers).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the founder and headquarters of Deva Samaj.
Deva Samaj was established in Lahore (1887) by Shiv Narayan Agnihotri.
This movement stressed supreme moral conduct, ethics, and devotion to the leader.
2
Identify the background of Prarthana Samaj.
Prarthana Samaj was formed in Bombay in 1867 by Atmaram Pandurang.
It aimed at religious and social reform influenced by Keshab Chandra Sen's visit to Bombay.
3
Identify the key details of the Ahmadiyya Movement.
The Ahmadiyya Movement was founded in Qadian (1889) by Mirza Ghulam Ahmad.
It represented a reformist trend among Indian Muslims promoting universal harmony and education.
4
Identify the origin of Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha.
Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha was established in Bombay in 1851 by Parsi reformers.
It worked towards restoring Zoroastrianism to its original purity and improving women's social status.

Anahtar Kavram

Founders, Years, and Objectives of 19th-Century Socio-Religious Reform Movements
Soru 1675Soru →

Under the Constitution of India, in which of the following parts are the Directive Principles of State Policy enumerated?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Part IV

Cevap

Part IV of the Constitution of India contains the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Part IV of the Constitution of India (spanning Articles 36 to 51) outlines the Directive Principles of State Policy, which serve as constitutional guidelines for state governance and socio-economic justice.

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1
Recall the constitutional part containing Directive Principles of State Policy.
Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in Articles 36 to 51 within Part IV.
The Constitution organizes non-justiciable principles of governance under Part IV.

Anahtar Kavram

Constitutional location of Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV)
Soru 1676Soru →

Match the prominent philosophical doctrines of the medieval Bhakti movement listed under List I with their corresponding founding preceptors (Acharyas) listed under List II.

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Öğeler

Vishishtadvaita (Qualified Non-Dualism)
Dvaita (Dualism)
Shuddhadvaita (Pure Non-Dualism)
Dvaitadvaita (Dualistic Non-Dualism)

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

Vishishtadvaita matches with Ramanujacharya, Dvaita matches with Madhvacharya, Shuddhadvaita matches with Vallabhacharya, and Dvaitadvaita matches with Nimbarkacharya.
The correct matches directly correspond to the foundational Vedantic philosophies of the Bhakti movement: Vishishtadvaita was propounded by Ramanujacharya, Dvaita by Madhvacharya, Shuddhadvaita by Vallabhacharya, and Dvaitadvaita by Nimbarkacharya.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the founder of Vishishtadvaita
Ramanujacharya established Vishishtadvaita, emphasizing devotion (bhakti) to Lord Vishnu within a qualified non-dualistic Vedantic framework.
Associates Qualified Non-Dualism with Ramanujacharya.
2
Identify the founder of Dvaita philosophy
Madhvacharya founded the Tattvavada or Dvaita school, asserting five absolute dualistic differences between God, soul, and world.
Pairs Dualism with Madhvacharya.
3
Identify the founder of Shuddhadvaita
Vallabhacharya founded Pushtimarga and the philosophy of Shuddhadvaita, which views creation as a manifestation of Brahman without Maya.
Pairs Pure Non-Dualism with Vallabhacharya.
4
Identify the founder of Dvaitadvaita
Nimbarkacharya propagated Dvaitadvaita (Bhedabheda-vada), focusing on the dual and non-dual relationship between Radha-Krishna, souls, and matter.
Completes the pairing of Dualistic Non-Dualism with Nimbarkacharya.

Anahtar Kavram

Bhakti Vedantic Philosophies and Preceptors
Soru 1677Soru →

Which British Prime Minister made the historic declaration on February 20, 1947, announcing that the British government would grant full self-governance to British India and transfer power by June 1948 at the latest?

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Cevap: Clement Attlee

Cevap

Clement Attlee
Clement Attlee, the Labour Party Prime Minister of Great Britain, announced in the House of Commons on February 20, 1947, that the British intention was to effect the transfer of power to Indian hands by June 1948 at the latest. This announcement led directly to the appointment of Lord Mountbatten as the final Viceroy to oversee the constitutional transition.

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1
Identify the historical context and date of the declaration
On February 20, 1947, the British government announced a fixed deadline for ending British rule in India.
The announcement set June 30, 1948, as the absolute deadline to hand over power to responsible Indian leadership.
2
Associate the declaration with the sitting British Prime Minister
Clement Attlee, head of the Labour Party government elected in 1945, made this statement in the House of Commons.
Attlee's government appointed Lord Mountbatten to succeed Lord Wavell as Viceroy to fulfill this directive.

Anahtar Kavram

Attlee's Declaration of February 20, 1947
Soru 1678Soru →

Arrange the following prominent Bhakti movement saints and philosophers in chronological order of their historical period, starting from the earliest to the latest.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct chronological order from earliest to latest is Adi Shankaracharya (8th century CE), Ramanujacharya (11th–12th century CE), Basavanna (12th century CE), and Kabir (15th century CE).
The correct order begins with Adi Shankaracharya (8th century CE), followed by Ramanujacharya (11th–12th century CE), Basavanna (12th century CE), and Kabir (15th century CE).

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1
Identify the historical period of Adi Shankaracharya.
Adi Shankaracharya lived in the 8th century CE.
This establishes the starting point of the sequence.
2
Determine the time periods of Ramanujacharya and Basavanna.
Ramanujacharya lived in the 11th–12th century CE, while Basavanna flourished in the mid-12th century CE.
This establishes the mid-sequence progression from South Indian Vedanta traditions to the Sharana movement.
3
Identify the period of Kabir.
Kabir lived during the 15th century CE.
This places Kabir at the end of the chronological order among the listed saints.

Anahtar Kavram

Chronology of Bhakti Movement Saints and Philosophers
Soru 1679Soru →

Consider the following statements regarding the transportation infrastructure and inland waterways of India:

1. National Waterway-3 (NW-3) spans the West Coast Canal in Kerala, incorporating the Champakara and Udyogamandal canals.
2. The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) originates at Sahnewal near Ludhiana (Punjab) and terminates at Dankuni (West Bengal).
3. Kamarajar Port at Ennore is the first major port in India registered as a public corporatised company under the Companies Act.
4. National Waterway-2 (NW-2) covers the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system connecting Prayagraj to Haldia.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Cevap: 1, 2, and 3 only

Cevap

The statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct, while statement 4 is incorrect because National Waterway-2 covers the Brahmaputra River stretch between Dhubri and Sadiya, whereas National Waterway-1 covers the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system between Prayagraj and Haldia.
Statements 1, 2, and 3 present accurate facts regarding India's transport network. National Waterway-3 (NW-3) consists of the West Coast Canal (Kottapuram-Kollam) along with the Udyogamandal and Champakara canals in Kerala. The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor runs from Sahnewal (Ludhiana) to Dankuni. Kamarajar Port (Ennore) is uniquely structured as a corporatised entity among India's major ports. Statement 4 is false because the Prayagraj-Haldia stretch along the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly system is designated as National Waterway-1 (NW-1), whereas National Waterway-2 (NW-2) covers the Brahmaputra river from Dhubri to Sadiya.

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1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding National Waterway-3
National Waterway-3 (NW-3) extends from Kottapuram to Kollam along the West Coast Canal, including the Champakara and Udyogamandal canals in Kerala (total length 205 km). Statement 1 is correct.
Verify canal and route alignment in Southern India inland navigation.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC)
The EDFC starts at Sahnewal (Ludhiana, Punjab) and ends at Dankuni (West Bengal), serving heavy freight traffic across northern and eastern India. Statement 2 is correct.
Verify corridor terminals for freight logistics.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Kamarajar Port
Kamarajar Port Limited (formerly Ennore Port) is India's 12th major port and the only major port incorporated as a company under the Companies Act, 1956. Statement 3 is correct.
Verify corporate governance structure among Indian Major Ports.
4
Evaluate Statement 4 regarding National Waterway-2
National Waterway-1 (NW-1) covers the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river stretch from Prayagraj to Haldia (1,620 km). National Waterway-2 (NW-2) covers the Brahmaputra River from Dhubri to Sadiya (891 km). Thus, Statement 4 is incorrect.
Identify numbering and river alignment mismatches across national waterways.

Anahtar Kavram

Classification and Infrastructure Specifications of Indian Transportation Networks (Inland Waterways, Freight Corridors, and Sea Ports)
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1680Soru →

Which of the following sea ports on the eastern coast of India primarily serves as the main outlet for exporting iron ore extracted from the Bailadila mines of Chhattisgarh?

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Cevap: Visakhapatnam Port

Cevap

Visakhapatnam Port primarily handles the export of iron ore mined from the Bailadila range in Chhattisgarh.
Visakhapatnam Port has a direct freight railway connection to the Bailadila iron ore mines in Chhattisgarh and operates specialized mechanized loading berths dedicated to bulk iron ore export.

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1
Identify the geographic location of the mineral resource
The Bailadila iron ore deposits are situated in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh.
Locating the mineral belt helps identify its natural transportation corridor and corresponding port outlet.
2
Trace the dedicated export infrastructure
A dedicated freight rail link connects Bailadila directly to Visakhapatnam Port on the east coast.
Visakhapatnam Port was specifically expanded with a deep-outer harbor and mechanized bulk loading facilities to export Bailadila iron ore to East Asian markets.

Anahtar Kavram

Industrial hinterlands and specialized mineral export ports of India
Tahmini Süre:45s
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