A 59-year-old female is evaluated in the primary care clinic for new-onset vaginal spotting that has occurred intermittently for the past three weeks. Her last menstrual period was 8 years ago. She has no significant past medical history except for well-controlled hypertension. Her body mass index is 33 kg/m2. Physical examination shows a normal appearing cervix and vaginal mucosa. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluating this patient's symptoms?
- Tissue sampling of the endometriumCevap
- BRoutine follow-up in one year
- CMeasurement of serum follicle-stimulating hormone
- DPelvic magnetic resonance imaging
- EInitiation of vaginal conjugated equine estrogens
Cevap
Tissue sampling of the endometrium
Any episode of bleeding in a postmenopausal woman is abnormal and must be investigated promptly to rule out endometrial hyperplasia and cancer. The patient's obesity is an additional risk factor, as peripheral conversion of androgens to estrogens in adipose tissue leads to unopposed estrogen exposure. The standard of care for initial evaluation is either tissue sampling of the endometrium or a transvaginal ultrasound (to measure endometrial stripe thickness). Since ultrasound is not an option here, tissue sampling is the unequivocally correct next step.
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Postmenopausal bleeding requires immediate evaluation with endometrial tissue sampling or transvaginal ultrasound to rule out endometrial cancer.
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