A 62-year-old woman comes to the office due to a 3-week history of episodic vaginal bleeding. She reached menopause at age 52 and has not had any vaginal bleeding since then. Her medical history is significant for obesity, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Current medications include metformin and lisinopril. Her body mass index (BMI) is 34 kg/m². Pelvic examination shows normal external genitalia and a nulliparous cervix without visible lesions. Bimanual examination reveals a normal-sized, mobile uterus with no adnexal masses. A transvaginal ultrasound is performed and shows an endometrial stripe thickness of 7 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AReassurance and observation
- BRepeat transvaginal ultrasound in 3 months
- Endometrial biopsyCevap
- DHysteroscopy with endometrial ablation
- ETotal abdominal hysterectomy
Cevap
The most appropriate next step in management is to perform an endometrial biopsy.
The correct answer is endometrial biopsy. The patient presents with postmenopausal bleeding and an endometrial stripe of 7 mm (which is > 4 mm). This presentation is highly suspicious for endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, particularly given her prominent risk factors of obesity, nulliparity, and type 2 diabetes. Tissue diagnosis via an office endometrial biopsy is mandatory to definitively rule out malignancy.
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Anahtar Kavram
Any postmenopausal woman presenting with vaginal bleeding and an endometrial stripe thickness strictly greater than 4 mm requires an endometrial biopsy to rule out endometrial carcinoma.