A 59-year-old nulliparous woman is evaluated in the clinic for two days of bloody vaginal discharge. She has not had a menstrual period for seven years. Her past medical history is notable for obesity, hypertension, and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. Speculum examination reveals a small amount of dark blood in the vaginal vault with normal-appearing cervical and vaginal mucosa. Bimanual examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AMeasurement of serum CA-125
- BPap test and HPV co-testing
- Endometrial biopsyCevap
- DReassurance and follow-up in 6 months
- EInitiation of cyclic progestin therapy
Cevap
Endometrial biopsy
Postmenopausal bleeding is the classic presenting symptom of endometrial cancer and must be evaluated promptly. In a postmenopausal woman, any vaginal bleeding is abnormal. The initial evaluation focuses on ruling out endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma. Endometrial biopsy is a highly sensitive and specific first-line diagnostic test for evaluating this condition, particularly in a patient who possesses significant risk factors for endometrial cancer, such as obesity, nulliparity, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Transvaginal ultrasound to measure endometrial stripe thickness is also an acceptable initial test, but tissue sampling provides a definitive diagnosis.
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Evaluation of postmenopausal bleeding