During a wellness visit, a 67-year-old nulligravid female reports noticing blood on her undergarments over the past three weeks. She notes her last menstrual period occurred at age 51. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and obesity. Her current body mass index is . A speculum examination reveals a normal-appearing cervix with no vaginal or vulvar lesions. Transvaginal ultrasonography demonstrates an endometrial stripe thickness of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Endometrial biopsyCevap
- BRepeat transvaginal ultrasonography in 6 months
- CTotal extrafascial hysterectomy
- DMeasurement of serum CA-125 concentration
- ECervical cytology testing
Cevap
Endometrial biopsy
The correct next step is an endometrial biopsy. This patient presents with postmenopausal bleeding (PMB) and possesses several unopposed estrogen risk factors for endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulligravidity, and type 2 diabetes. The initial evaluation for PMB typically involves either transvaginal ultrasonography or an endometrial biopsy. Because her ultrasound demonstrates an endometrial thickness of (normal in postmenopause is ), she requires immediate histologic evaluation of the endometrium to rule out hyperplasia or carcinoma.
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Anahtar Kavram
In postmenopausal women presenting with vaginal bleeding, an endometrial thickness greater than on transvaginal ultrasound is abnormal and strictly mandates an immediate endometrial biopsy to rule out malignancy.