A -year-old female presents to the physician with a chief complaint of vaginal spotting that began days ago. She experienced menopause at age . Her medical history includes hypertension, obesity, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. A speculum examination demonstrates a normal-appearing vagina and cervix, with a small amount of blood exiting the external cervical os. Pelvic sonography is performed and reveals an endometrial stripe thickness of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Endometrial samplingCevap
- BObservation with a repeat ultrasound in 6 months
- CInitiation of oral progesterone therapy
- DMeasurement of serum CA-125 concentration
- ETotal abdominal hysterectomy
Cevap
Endometrial sampling
Endometrial sampling is the definitive and most appropriate next step for this patient. She presents with postmenopausal bleeding and has multiple risk factors for endometrial cancer, including obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus (which contribute to a hyperestrogenic state). Furthermore, her pelvic sonography reveals an endometrial stripe of . In postmenopausal women, an endometrial thickness requires tissue diagnosis to rule out endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma.
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Anahtar Kavram
Postmenopausal bleeding with an endometrial stripe on ultrasound requires immediate endometrial sampling to rule out malignancy.