An obstetrician-gynecologist is evaluating a 54-year-old female who reports a single episode of bright red blood on her toilet tissue the previous morning. She attained menopause four years ago and has not experienced any vaginal bleeding since that time. Her medical history includes polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), essential hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her body mass index is 36 kg/m². Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination demonstrates normal external genitalia and a parous cervix without visible lesions. Bimanual examination reveals a mobile, non-tender uterus of normal size. Office-based transvaginal ultrasonography demonstrates a heterogeneous endometrial stripe measuring 8 mm in thickness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Endometrial biopsyCevap
- BInitiation of topical estradiol therapy
- CRoutine Papanicolaou test
- DTotal extrafascial hysterectomy
- ERepeat transvaginal ultrasonography in 6 months