A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a routine wellness visit. During the interview, she mentions that over the past two months, she has noticed occasional blood stains on her underwear. She attributed this to 'fragile skin' since she was recently diagnosed with vulvar lichen sclerosus and uses a prescribed topical corticosteroid ointment. Her last menstrual period was 14 years ago. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her medications include metformin, lisinopril, and the topical steroid. Pelvic examination reveals white, parchment-like changes on the vulvar skin and a small anal fissure, but no active bleeding. Speculum examination demonstrates a normal-appearing cervix and vaginal vault without visible lesions. Bimanual examination is unremarkable. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a homogeneous endometrial echo complex of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AReassurance and continued use of topical corticosteroids
- BFollow-up transvaginal ultrasound in 3 months
- CColposcopy with endocervical curettage
- Endometrial biopsyCevap
- EMeasurement of serum CA-125 levels