A 33-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the clinic for a routine wellness examination. She states that her menstrual cycles have always been irregular, occurring every to days, with menses lasting to days and accompanied by heavy flow. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic hypertension, and obesity. Her body mass index is kg/m . Pelvic examination shows a normal-appearing cervix with no visible lesions. A Pap test is performed, and the cytology report reveals atypical glandular cells. High-risk human papillomavirus testing is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Colposcopy, endocervical curettage, and endometrial biopsyCevap
- BColposcopy and endocervical curettage
- CEndometrial biopsy only
- DPelvic ultrasound and continuous oral contraceptives
- ERepeat Pap test and human papillomavirus co-testing in 1 year
Cevap
Colposcopy, endocervical curettage, and endometrial biopsy
The correct answer is colposcopy, endocervical curettage, and endometrial biopsy. Atypical glandular cells (AGC) on a Pap test indicate a risk of cervical, endocervical, or endometrial adenocarcinoma. The standard initial evaluation for AGC in all patients involves colposcopy and endocervical sampling (curettage) to assess the cervix and endocervical canal. Furthermore, because AGC can also originate from the endometrium, endometrial sampling is indicated in women age years and older, as well as in women younger than years who have risk factors for endometrial neoplasia. This patient is years old but has a history of chronic anovulation (irregular, infrequent menses) and obesity, which expose her endometrium to unopposed estrogen, significantly increasing her risk for endometrial hyperplasia and cancer. Therefore, an endometrial biopsy must be included in her initial diagnostic workup.
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Anahtar Kavram
Workup of atypical glandular cells (AGC) on Pap testing