A 71-year-old multiparous woman is evaluated in the urogynecology clinic for a persistent vaginal bulge and pelvic pressure that has progressively worsened over the past year. She also reports a single episode of scant, bright red vaginal spotting three weeks ago, which she attributed to the bulge rubbing against her clothing. She went through menopause at age 52 and has not seen a physician in over a decade. Her medical history includes well-controlled hypertension. On physical examination, there is stage III pelvic organ prolapse with the cervix protruding past the hymenal ring. A 1.5-cm superficial, non-bleeding erosion is noted on the dependent portion of the prolapsed cervix. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals a homogeneous endometrial stripe of 8 mm and normal-appearing adnexa. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Endometrial biopsyCevap
- BTrial of vaginal estrogen therapy
- CPlacement of a vaginal pessary
- DColposcopy with cervical biopsy
- EVaginal hysterectomy