A 68-year-old woman is brought to the clinic for evaluation of blood-tinged vaginal discharge that started 3 weeks ago. She attained menopause at age 52. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, obesity, and estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer diagnosed 3 years ago, for which she was treated with a lumpectomy and radiation therapy. She is currently taking tamoxifen. Pelvic examination reveals a small amount of dark blood in the vaginal vault. The cervix appears flush with the vagina and is severely stenotic. A transvaginal ultrasound shows an endometrial thickness of 14 mm with multiple small cystic spaces. An attempt to perform an in-office endometrial biopsy is unsuccessful because the sampling device cannot pass through the external cervical os, despite the use of a tenaculum and misoprostol preparation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AReassurance and repeat transvaginal ultrasound in 6 months
- BDiscontinuation of tamoxifen and initiation of anastrozole
- CPelvic magnetic resonance imaging
- Hysteroscopy with dilation and curettageCevap
- ETotal extrafascial hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy