A 61-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 3, presents to the gynecology clinic reporting a three-day history of light vaginal spotting. Her last menstrual period occurred 10 years ago, and she denies any postmenopausal bleeding prior to this episode. Her medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic hypertension, and obesity (BMI 38 kg/m^2). Current medications include metformin, lisinopril, and a daily multivitamin. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination demonstrates pale, thinned vaginal mucosa with decreased rugosity. A small amount of dark blood is visible at the external cervical os. Bimanual examination reveals a normal-sized, mobile uterus without adnexal masses. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals an endometrial echo complex measuring 9 mm in thickness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Endometrial tissue samplingCevap
- BRoutine follow-up with repeat ultrasonography in 6 months
- CInitiation of local vaginal estrogen therapy
- DTotal extrafascial hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
- EEmpirical treatment with cyclic oral progestins