A 52-year-old male who underwent a deceased-donor renal transplantation 8 months ago is evaluated in the inpatient medical ward for a 4-day history of fever, dry cough, and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. His current medications include tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and prednisone. Temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure is 132/82 mmHg, pulse is 108/min, and respirations are 20/min. Oxygen saturation is 93% on room air. Laboratory studies reveal a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL (baseline 1.3 mg/dL). A non-contrast CT scan of the chest demonstrates a nodular consolidation with a surrounding ground-glass opacity (halo sign) in the right upper lobe. Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage is performed, and galactomannan antigen testing is markedly positive. The infectious disease service recommends initiating intravenous voriconazole. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention regarding this patient's current medication regimen?
- Decrease the tacrolimus dose and monitor serum trough levelsCevap
- BIncrease the tacrolimus dose to compensate for enhanced hepatic metabolism
- CSubstitute fluconazole for the recommended antifungal to avoid drug interactions
- DSwitch tacrolimus to cyclosporine to bypass cytochrome P450 interference
- ETemporarily discontinue all immunosuppressive therapy until the infection resolves