A 54-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department via ambulance after the sudden onset of severe, tearing chest pain that radiates to her interscapular region. Her medical history is significant for severe persistent asthma, for which she takes an inhaled corticosteroid and long-acting beta-agonist, and hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine. On arrival, she appears in acute distress. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is in the right arm and in the left arm, heart rate is , and respiratory rate is . Pulse oximetry shows on room air. Physical examination reveals a diaphoretic woman. Pulmonary auscultation reveals diffuse bilateral expiratory wheezing. Cardiovascular examination shows a regular tachycardic rhythm with no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Radial pulses are symmetric, but the left femoral pulse is diminished. CT angiography of the chest confirms a Stanford type B aortic dissection. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic intervention for this patient?
- AIntravenous esmolol followed by intravenous sodium nitroprusside
- BIntravenous sodium nitroprusside alone
- Intravenous diltiazem followed by intravenous sodium nitroprussideCevap
- DIntravenous labetalol
- EIntravenous nicardipine followed by intravenous diltiazem