A 68-year-old woman is evaluated in the clinic for new-onset, severe right-sided headaches, scalp tenderness, and pain in her jaw when chewing over the past two weeks. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 85 mm/h. She is immediately started on high-dose oral prednisone. Four days later, a biopsy of the right temporal artery is performed.
The pathologist's report describes the following findings:
- Marked intimal hyperplasia causing luminal narrowing
- A transmural mixed inflammatory infiltrate composed primarily of lymphocytes and macrophages
- Extensive fragmentation of the internal elastic lamina
- No multinucleated giant cells are identified across multiple serial sections
Based on these histopathologic findings, which of the following is the most accurate diagnostic interpretation?
- The findings confirm giant cell arteritis despite the absence of multinucleated giant cells.Cevap
- BThe absence of multinucleated giant cells effectively excludes the diagnosis of giant cell arteritis.
- CThe changes are characteristic of normal age-related arteriosclerosis, ruling out an active vasculitis.
- DThe histopathologic features indicate polyarteritis nodosa rather than giant cell arteritis.
- EThe biopsy is nondiagnostic because prior corticosteroid therapy has masked the defining histologic features.