A 52-year-old man presents for evaluation of a new, irregularly pigmented 8-mm macule on his left shoulder. An excisional biopsy with 2-mm margins is performed. The synoptic pathology report reveals an asymmetric, poorly circumscribed proliferation of atypical melanocytes present as single cells and in variable-sized nests. These cells exhibit prominent upward pagetoid scatter throughout the full thickness of the epidermis. Atypical melanocytes are also noted invading the papillary and superficial reticular dermis to a measured depth of 1.1 mm from the epidermal granular layer. There is no evidence of surface ulceration, and the dermal mitotic rate is 2 mitoses per square millimeter. Deep and peripheral margins are free of tumor. Based on the interpretation of this pathology report, which of the following statements are correct? (Select all that apply)
- The combination of prominent pagetoid scatter and dermal invasion confirms the diagnosis of invasive malignant melanoma.Cevap
- The measured tumor thickness of 1.1 mm is a pathologic staging criterion that indicates a need for sentinel lymph node biopsy.Cevap
- CThe absence of surface ulceration demonstrates that the lesion is confined above the epidermal basement membrane.
- DThe presence of dermal mitoses is a reassuring feature typically seen in benign compound nevi.
- EThe asymmetric architecture with full-thickness pagetoid scatter represents the expected histologic profile of a severely atypical dysplastic nevus.