A -year-old man with a -year history of untreated, asymptomatic, low-grade follicular lymphoma presents with rapid enlargement of a right cervical lymph node, new-onset fevers, and a body weight loss over the past weeks. An excisional biopsy of the rapidly enlarging node is performed.
Histopathologic and molecular evaluation reveals the following:
- Complete architectural effacement by a diffuse infiltrate of large lymphoid cells.
- The atypical cells display vesicular chromatin, prominent nucleoli, and moderate basophilic cytoplasm.
- No residual nodular or follicular architecture is identified.
- Immunohistochemistry: The large cells are strongly positive for , , , and .
- The Ki-67 proliferation index is estimated at .
- Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) confirms the persistence of a translocation and identifies a newly acquired gene rearrangement at .
Which of the following is the most accurate diagnostic interpretation of this lymph node biopsy?
- Histologic transformation to a high-grade B-cell lymphoma with MYC and BCL2 rearrangementsCevap
- BProgression to follicular lymphoma, grade 3B, characterized by a diffuse growth pattern of centroblasts
- CDevelopment of a secondary, independent Burkitt lymphoma driven by the newly acquired MYC rearrangement
- DBlastoid variant of mantle cell lymphoma, indicated by the aggressive clinical presentation and high proliferation index
- EReactive blastoid hyperplasia secondary to an acute infectious process superimposed on the underlying indolent lymphoma