A 61-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for 3 days of fever, dry cough, pleuritic chest pain, and mild hemoptysis. His medical history is significant for an orthotopic heart transplant 3 years ago for nonischemic cardiomyopathy and a history of recurrent unprovoked deep venous thrombosis. His current medications include tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, prednisone, and warfarin.
Vital signs are temperature (), pulse , blood pressure , and respirations . Pulse oximetry shows on room air.
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Leukocyte count | |
| Serum creatinine | |
| INR |
A serum galactomannan assay is markedly elevated. A non-contrast CT of the chest reveals a macronodule in the right upper lobe surrounded by a halo of ground-glass attenuation.
The infectious disease service diagnoses invasive pulmonary aspergillosis and recommends initiating intravenous voriconazole.
Which of the following simultaneous pharmacologic interventions are indicated for this patient? (Select all that apply)
- Decrease the daily dose of tacrolimusCevap
- Decrease the weekly dose of warfarinCevap
- CSubstitute voriconazole with high-dose fluconazole
- DInitiate concurrent rifampin therapy
- EDiscontinue prednisone therapy