A 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of fever, pleuritic chest pain, and hemoptysis. He underwent an orthotopic heart transplant 8 months ago for nonischemic cardiomyopathy. His current daily medications include tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, prednisone, and prophylactic valganciclovir. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure is 118/74 mm Hg, pulse is 96/min, and respiratory rate is 20/min. Pulse oximetry shows 94% on room air. Physical examination reveals bronchial breath sounds and inspiratory crackles over the right upper lung field. High-resolution computed tomography of the chest demonstrates a dense right upper lobe consolidation surrounded by a ground-glass opacity (halo sign). Serum galactomannan assay is markedly elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic management for this patient?
- Intravenous voriconazole and decrease the dose of tacrolimusCevap
- BIntravenous voriconazole and discontinue mycophenolate mofetil
- CIntravenous fluconazole and decrease the dose of tacrolimus
- DIntravenous liposomal amphotericin B and substitute sirolimus for tacrolimus
- EIntravenous caspofungin and increase the dose of prednisone