A 72-year-old man is admitted to the inpatient medical ward for severe, poorly controlled lower back and pelvic pain secondary to metastatic prostate cancer. He reports that the pain has progressively worsened over the past two weeks and is now 9/10 in intensity. His current pain regimen consists of oral acetaminophen and oral ibuprofen, which currently provide minimal relief. His medical history is significant for hypertension, major depressive disorder, and chronic kidney disease stage 4 (baseline estimated glomerular filtration rate is 22 mL/min/1.73 m²). Current daily medications include amlodipine, sertraline, acetaminophen, and ibuprofen. Vital signs are temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 152/88 mm Hg, pulse 98/min, and respirations 18/min. Physical examination reveals exquisite tenderness to palpation over the lumbar spine and posterior pelvis. The patient is awake, alert, and expresses a strong desire for immediate pain relief. The attending physician plans to discontinue the ibuprofen and initiate a strong opioid. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient's pain?
- Intravenous fentanyl via patient-controlled analgesiaCevap
- BIntravenous morphine via patient-controlled analgesia
- CTransdermal fentanyl patch
- DIntravenous ketorolac on a scheduled basis
- EOral tramadol on a scheduled basis