A 48-year-old man presents to the ambulatory care clinic with a 2-day history of right leg swelling and calf pain. He recently returned from a 12-hour international flight. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 128/82 mmHg, pulse is 76/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. Physical examination reveals pitting edema and tenderness in the right lower extremity below the knee. Point-of-care compression ultrasonography demonstrates a noncompressible right popliteal vein. Laboratory testing shows a serum creatinine of 0.9 mg/dL and normal liver function tests. The patient is hemodynamically stable, ambulatory, and has reliable access to outpatient follow-up. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic intervention for this patient?
- Oral apixabanCevap
- BOral warfarin
- COral aspirin
- DIntravenous unfractionated heparin
- EIntravenous alteplase