An independent 68-year-old resident of a senior living community presents to the ambulatory care clinic reporting two days of painful urination and severe urinary urgency. She notes lower pelvic pressure but denies fevers, chills, vaginal discharge, or back pain. Her medical history is significant for seropositive rheumatoid arthritis, hypertension, and stage 4 chronic kidney disease secondary to hypertensive nephrosclerosis. Her daily medications include amlodipine and folic acid, and she takes methotrexate once weekly. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals mild suprapubic tenderness without costovertebral angle tenderness.
Laboratory results:
Serum creatinine: 2.3 mg/dL
Estimated GFR: 24 mL/min/1.73 m²
Urinalysis:
Appearance: Cloudy
Specific gravity: 1.018
pH: 6.5
Leukocyte esterase: Positive
Nitrite: Negative
Protein: Trace
WBC: 25-30/hpf
RBC: 1-2/hpf
Bacteria: Moderate
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacologic management?
- Prescribe oral cephalexinCevap
- BPrescribe oral nitrofurantoin
- CPrescribe oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- DPrescribe oral ciprofloxacin
- EWithhold antibiotics until urine culture results finalize