A 42-year-old woman is evaluated on the inpatient medical ward for acute-onset agitation, confusion, and severe diaphoresis. She was admitted 2 days ago for a complicated right lower extremity skin abscess, for which she was started on intravenous linezolid. Her past medical history is significant for major depressive disorder, which has been managed with fluoxetine for the past three years. Vital signs show a temperature of 38.9°C (102.0°F), blood pressure of 165/95 mmHg, pulse of 124/min, and respiratory rate of 20/min. Physical examination reveals a flushed, profusely diaphoretic patient who appears restless and continuously shifts in bed. Neurologic examination demonstrates bilateral 4+ patellar reflexes, sustained ankle clonus, and a bilateral resting tremor. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. She is immediately given intravenous normal saline and lorazepam, and her current antimicrobial and antidepressant medications are discontinued. Which of the following is the most appropriate next pharmacologic intervention for this patient's current condition?
- ABromocriptine
- BDantrolene
- CHaloperidol
- DPhysostigmine
- CyproheptadineCevap